Basic Military Requirements (BMR) - Study Guide
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Published on 05/31/2007
The BMR study guide.
Study Guide - Basic Military Requirements (BMR CH 2)
The three sources that contain the basic disciplinary laws for the U.S. Navy are—
a. U.S. Navy Regulations
b. Standard Organization and Regulations of the U.S. Navy
c. Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ)
One of the most important characteristics of a good Sailor is a sense of moral responsibility.
To succeed in your work in the Navy, you should value and take part in teamwork.
The Code of Conduct was established to govern situations where Sailors were prisoners of war.
There are six articles in the Code of Conduct.
Under article V, the only information you are allowed to give is your name, rank, service number, and date of birth.
In the Navy, the military police are known as the shore patrol.
Shore patrol personnel are identified by armbands bearing the letters SP.
When military police are from different armed forces and combined to form one unit, they are known as an Armed Forces Police Detachment (AFPD).
The primary duties of the shore patrol are to—
a. Render assistance to military personnel ashore
b. Maintain good order and discipline among military personnel
c. Report conditions or practices that appear prejudicial to the welfare of military personnel
Motivation and correction through reward and punishment are used to help Sailors work as a unit.
The purpose of discipline in the military is to bring about an efficient military organization.
Deterrent theory of punishment is used by the Navy.
The two things a recipient of Navy punishment should remember are—
a. Punishment is a result of their behavior.
b. They won’t be punished again if they learn to conform to Navy’s standard of conduct.
Chapter 10 of the Navy Regs deals with your responsibility and authority while carrying out orders.
Chapter 11 of the Navy Regs deals with your rights and responsibilities.
Chief of Naval Operations is responsible for making sure that the Navy Regs conform to the current needs of the Department of the Navy.
Secretary of the Navy issues and the President approves new Navy Regs and changes to Navy Regs.
The instructions found in the OPNAVINST 3120.32 provide guidance and regulations for the duties and responsibilities for all personnel within a unit or organization.
The purpose for developing and signing into law the Uniform Code of Military Justice was to standardize legal procedure and discipline throughout all branches of service.
The UCMJ was signed into law on 31 May 1951.
Article 137 of the UCMJ states that certain articles of the Code must be explained carefully to every enlisted person at the time of entrance or no later than 6 days later, 6 months on active duty, and every reenlistment.
The three types of courts-martial are—
a. Summary
b. Special
c. General
a. U.S. Navy Regulations
b. Standard Organization and Regulations of the U.S. Navy
c. Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ)
One of the most important characteristics of a good Sailor is a sense of moral responsibility.
To succeed in your work in the Navy, you should value and take part in teamwork.
The Code of Conduct was established to govern situations where Sailors were prisoners of war.
There are six articles in the Code of Conduct.
Under article V, the only information you are allowed to give is your name, rank, service number, and date of birth.
In the Navy, the military police are known as the shore patrol.
Shore patrol personnel are identified by armbands bearing the letters SP.
When military police are from different armed forces and combined to form one unit, they are known as an Armed Forces Police Detachment (AFPD).
The primary duties of the shore patrol are to—
a. Render assistance to military personnel ashore
b. Maintain good order and discipline among military personnel
c. Report conditions or practices that appear prejudicial to the welfare of military personnel
Motivation and correction through reward and punishment are used to help Sailors work as a unit.
The purpose of discipline in the military is to bring about an efficient military organization.
Deterrent theory of punishment is used by the Navy.
The two things a recipient of Navy punishment should remember are—
a. Punishment is a result of their behavior.
b. They won’t be punished again if they learn to conform to Navy’s standard of conduct.
Chapter 10 of the Navy Regs deals with your responsibility and authority while carrying out orders.
Chapter 11 of the Navy Regs deals with your rights and responsibilities.
Chief of Naval Operations is responsible for making sure that the Navy Regs conform to the current needs of the Department of the Navy.
Secretary of the Navy issues and the President approves new Navy Regs and changes to Navy Regs.
The instructions found in the OPNAVINST 3120.32 provide guidance and regulations for the duties and responsibilities for all personnel within a unit or organization.
The purpose for developing and signing into law the Uniform Code of Military Justice was to standardize legal procedure and discipline throughout all branches of service.
The UCMJ was signed into law on 31 May 1951.
Article 137 of the UCMJ states that certain articles of the Code must be explained carefully to every enlisted person at the time of entrance or no later than 6 days later, 6 months on active duty, and every reenlistment.
The three types of courts-martial are—
a. Summary
b. Special
c. General
Study Guide - Basic Military Requirements (BMR CH 3)
The three main reasons for a ship to stand watch are—
a. Communications
b. Security
c. Safety
The ship’s organized plan for action is located in the battle bill.
The division officer and division chief are responsible for assigning qualified personnel to stations and entering their names on the Watch, Quarter, and Station Bill.
When relieving a watch, you should arrive at your station 15 minutes ahead of time.
The ship’s bell is usually restricted to the hours between reveille and taps.
6 bells are sounded at 0700.
The purpose of the dogwatch is to rotate watches.
The watch system is divided into
(a) underway and
(b) in-port watches.
Security watches—
a. prevent sabotage
b. protect property from theft
c. prevent access to restricted areas
d. protect personnel
The QMOW maintains the ship’s deck log while under way.
The fog lookout normally stands in the bow where approaching ships can better be seen and heard.
Normally, an after steering watch is stood under the following conditions:
a. General quarters
b. Under way replenishment
c. Sea and anchor detail
The sound and security watch reports directly to the
(a) OOD, and the results of their inspections are logged in
(b) ship’s deck log.
General orders cover situations of a routine nature common to most sentry posts.
The precautions to be strictly adhered to while standing an armed watch with a pistol include—
a. Keep the pistol in the holster.
b. Don’t engage in horseplay with the pistol.
c. Don’t surrender the pistol to any unauthorized person.
d. Leave two loaded magazine clips in their pouch and remember there is one round loaded in the chamber.
e. When relieved, unload the pistol in a safe designated area. Remove the round from the chamber and check the chamber clear. Release the slide and let the hammer go home. Dry fire the pistol then engage the safety.
Deadly force can be used—
a. To protect your life or the life of another person where no other means of defense will be effective
b. When no other means is available to prevent the commission of or to prevent the escape of a person known to have committed robbery, murder, rape, arson, or kidnapping
c. To prevent acts of sabotage, espionage, or other crimes against the government after failure of all other available means of preventing such crime
Bearings are measured in degrees, clockwise around a circle from 000° to 360°.
The three different types of bearings are—
a. Relative
b. True
c. Magnetic
Bearings are reported in three digits, spoken digit by digit; positions are reported in one or two digits and spoken whole.
When using your hand as an aid to determine the position angle of an aircraft, your closed fist is approximately 8°.
If the binocular IPD is adjusted properly, you will see one circle when viewing through them.
The three adjustments that must be made when using binoculars are to adjust each eyepiece and set the IPD.
The improvement of vision in dim light is known as dark adaptation. It will take 30 minutes for you to reach your best night vision.
The different methods used for a day lookout and a night lookout are the day lookout moves his/her eyes in 5° steps, pausing at each step; the night lookout keeps moving his/her eyes.
a. Communications
b. Security
c. Safety
The ship’s organized plan for action is located in the battle bill.
The division officer and division chief are responsible for assigning qualified personnel to stations and entering their names on the Watch, Quarter, and Station Bill.
When relieving a watch, you should arrive at your station 15 minutes ahead of time.
The ship’s bell is usually restricted to the hours between reveille and taps.
6 bells are sounded at 0700.
The purpose of the dogwatch is to rotate watches.
The watch system is divided into
(a) underway and
(b) in-port watches.
Security watches—
a. prevent sabotage
b. protect property from theft
c. prevent access to restricted areas
d. protect personnel
The QMOW maintains the ship’s deck log while under way.
The fog lookout normally stands in the bow where approaching ships can better be seen and heard.
Normally, an after steering watch is stood under the following conditions:
a. General quarters
b. Under way replenishment
c. Sea and anchor detail
The sound and security watch reports directly to the
(a) OOD, and the results of their inspections are logged in
(b) ship’s deck log.
General orders cover situations of a routine nature common to most sentry posts.
The precautions to be strictly adhered to while standing an armed watch with a pistol include—
a. Keep the pistol in the holster.
b. Don’t engage in horseplay with the pistol.
c. Don’t surrender the pistol to any unauthorized person.
d. Leave two loaded magazine clips in their pouch and remember there is one round loaded in the chamber.
e. When relieved, unload the pistol in a safe designated area. Remove the round from the chamber and check the chamber clear. Release the slide and let the hammer go home. Dry fire the pistol then engage the safety.
Deadly force can be used—
a. To protect your life or the life of another person where no other means of defense will be effective
b. When no other means is available to prevent the commission of or to prevent the escape of a person known to have committed robbery, murder, rape, arson, or kidnapping
c. To prevent acts of sabotage, espionage, or other crimes against the government after failure of all other available means of preventing such crime
Bearings are measured in degrees, clockwise around a circle from 000° to 360°.
The three different types of bearings are—
a. Relative
b. True
c. Magnetic
Bearings are reported in three digits, spoken digit by digit; positions are reported in one or two digits and spoken whole.
When using your hand as an aid to determine the position angle of an aircraft, your closed fist is approximately 8°.
If the binocular IPD is adjusted properly, you will see one circle when viewing through them.
The three adjustments that must be made when using binoculars are to adjust each eyepiece and set the IPD.
The improvement of vision in dim light is known as dark adaptation. It will take 30 minutes for you to reach your best night vision.
The different methods used for a day lookout and a night lookout are the day lookout moves his/her eyes in 5° steps, pausing at each step; the night lookout keeps moving his/her eyes.
Study Guide - Basic Military Requirements (BMR CH 4)
To give the serial number (23DBCX14) of the pump over the phone, you would say—too, tree, delta, bravo, charlie, xray, wun, fo-wer.
True, the mouthpiece and earpiece of a sound-powered phone are interchangeable.
True, If you pick up the mouthpiece or the headpiece by itself, delicate wires could break.
True, If you leave the headset plugged in, the earpieces pick up background noises and transmit them over the circuit.
To talk or listen through the phone, depress the button located between the transmitter and receiver.
The three categories of sound powered phone circuits are—
a. Primary
b. Auxiliary
c. Supplementary
An XJZ circuit is an auxiliary circuit.
Some of the practices that make a good phone talker include—
a. Speak clearly and directly into the phone
b. Don’t have food or gum in your mouth
c. Don’t paraphrase messages; repeat them word for word
d. Speak slowly
e. In an emergency, speak calmly and precisely
f. Don’t use local accents
Some disciplines that must be followed when talking over sound-powered phone circuits include—
a. Transmit official message only
b. Keep the button in the OFF position except when transmitting
c. Use standard terms and phrases
d. Don’t use slang or profanity
To clear a sound-powered phone circuit to transmit an important message, the sender should say “silence on the line.”
The proper response upon receipt of a message is as follows: “Repeat message, identify yourself, and then acknowledge the message.”
The four elements you should include when taking a message are—
a. Name of caller
b. The message
c. Time and date of message
d. Your name
The terminal devices used with the IVCS are—
a. Network
b. Dial
Within the IVCS, the ICSC acts like a switchboard and connects the caller with the person who called.
Your phone system is unsecured. When receiving a call, you should answer the phone by saying this line is unsecured.
The alarm system is tied into the 1C circuit.
The 4MC circuit is the damage control circuit.
Calls passed over the 1MC are authorized by the—
a. OD,
b. XO, or the
c. CO
The 1MC is a one-way system and the 21MC is an intercom with two-way communication.
The first 4 channels of WIFCOM are assigned to—
a. Channel 1—Repair 5
b. Channel 2—Repair 2
c. Channel 3—Repair 3
d. Channel 4—Ship-to-ship communications
Flags and pennants used by the Navy include the international alphabet flags; numeral pennants and a code/answer pennant; a set of number flags , special flags, and pennants; and four substitutes or repeaters.
When in port, commissioned ships display the national ensign and the union jack. The national ensign is flown from the flagstaff at the stern, and the union jack is flown from the jackstaff at the bow.
On large ships, the signalman is usually responsible for making sure that special flags and pennants are displayed.
A ball is the flagstaff insignia for a captain. A boat with a halbert insignia on the flagstaff is approaching your ship. There is a flag or general officer on board, whose official salute is less than 19 guns.
Side boys are paraded for scheduled official visits.
A gun salute is fired when the visitor approaches and is still clear of the side.
CONDITIONS FLAG
a. There is a man overboard - Oscar
b. There are divers in the water - Code Alfa
c. A general court- martial is in session - The Union Jack
d. Worship service(s) in progress - Church pennant/ Jewish worship pennant
e. The captain is absent - The third pennant
True, the mouthpiece and earpiece of a sound-powered phone are interchangeable.
True, If you pick up the mouthpiece or the headpiece by itself, delicate wires could break.
True, If you leave the headset plugged in, the earpieces pick up background noises and transmit them over the circuit.
To talk or listen through the phone, depress the button located between the transmitter and receiver.
The three categories of sound powered phone circuits are—
a. Primary
b. Auxiliary
c. Supplementary
An XJZ circuit is an auxiliary circuit.
Some of the practices that make a good phone talker include—
a. Speak clearly and directly into the phone
b. Don’t have food or gum in your mouth
c. Don’t paraphrase messages; repeat them word for word
d. Speak slowly
e. In an emergency, speak calmly and precisely
f. Don’t use local accents
Some disciplines that must be followed when talking over sound-powered phone circuits include—
a. Transmit official message only
b. Keep the button in the OFF position except when transmitting
c. Use standard terms and phrases
d. Don’t use slang or profanity
To clear a sound-powered phone circuit to transmit an important message, the sender should say “silence on the line.”
The proper response upon receipt of a message is as follows: “Repeat message, identify yourself, and then acknowledge the message.”
The four elements you should include when taking a message are—
a. Name of caller
b. The message
c. Time and date of message
d. Your name
The terminal devices used with the IVCS are—
a. Network
b. Dial
Within the IVCS, the ICSC acts like a switchboard and connects the caller with the person who called.
Your phone system is unsecured. When receiving a call, you should answer the phone by saying this line is unsecured.
The alarm system is tied into the 1C circuit.
The 4MC circuit is the damage control circuit.
Calls passed over the 1MC are authorized by the—
a. OD,
b. XO, or the
c. CO
The 1MC is a one-way system and the 21MC is an intercom with two-way communication.
The first 4 channels of WIFCOM are assigned to—
a. Channel 1—Repair 5
b. Channel 2—Repair 2
c. Channel 3—Repair 3
d. Channel 4—Ship-to-ship communications
Flags and pennants used by the Navy include the international alphabet flags; numeral pennants and a code/answer pennant; a set of number flags , special flags, and pennants; and four substitutes or repeaters.
When in port, commissioned ships display the national ensign and the union jack. The national ensign is flown from the flagstaff at the stern, and the union jack is flown from the jackstaff at the bow.
On large ships, the signalman is usually responsible for making sure that special flags and pennants are displayed.
A ball is the flagstaff insignia for a captain. A boat with a halbert insignia on the flagstaff is approaching your ship. There is a flag or general officer on board, whose official salute is less than 19 guns.
Side boys are paraded for scheduled official visits.
A gun salute is fired when the visitor approaches and is still clear of the side.
CONDITIONS FLAG
a. There is a man overboard - Oscar
b. There are divers in the water - Code Alfa
c. A general court- martial is in session - The Union Jack
d. Worship service(s) in progress - Church pennant/ Jewish worship pennant
e. The captain is absent - The third pennant
Study Guide - Basic Military Requirements (BMR CH 5)
The United States Navy was formed because the Second Continental Congress realized that the survival of the colonies as independent from England depended on the formation of naval forces.
During the late 18th century, battleships were classified as ships-of-the-line.
The craft developed in 1775 was a warfare submarine, named the Turtle, and invented by David Bushnell.
This raid was the first amphibious operation carried out by the American Navy and Marines.
The first official recognition of the American Stars and Stripes flag by a foreign nation was given by (a) France
(b) to the USS Ranger.
After the Revolutionary War, the U.S. Navy defended America’s small merchant ship fleet from the Barbary pirates.
Between the Revolutionary War and the War of 1812, the U.S. Navy was involved with the—
a. Quasi War with France
b. Barbary States War.
Lord Nelson said that the operation executed by LT Stephen Decatur and 84 seamen by slipping into the harbor of Tripoli and burning the captured frigate Philadelphia was “one of the most bold and daring acts of the age.”
Two actions of the U.S. Navy during the War of 1812 were—
a. The sea battle between the American frigate USS Constitution and the British frigate Guerriere
b. The victory of Captain Oliver Hazard Perry over the British squadron on Lake Erie.
During the Mexican-American War, the Navy blockaded the port cities on the Gulf and the “Mosquito Fleet” provided protective action during the first large-scale amphibious operation in U.S. military history.
During the last part of the 19th century, naval developments included—
a. Introduction of ironclad ships
b. Introduction of riverboats, rams, and gunboats
c. Development of submarines d. Construction of steeled-hull protected cruisers, signaling the end of the ironclads
e. Development of self-propelled torpedo and long-range torpedo boats
f. Development of the internal combustion engine for ships
After developing the ironclad, the Confederate Navy developed the submarine.
During the Civil War Battle of Mobile bay, Admiral Farragut gave order, “Damn the torpedoes! Full speed ahead.”
Alfred T. Mahan influenced naval strategy through his books that stressed the idea that without control of the seas, a nation couldn’t expect victory. He was one of the first instructors at the Naval War College and shared his knowledge on sea power and the importance of understanding naval needs.
The Spanish-American war began when the Maine was blown up and 250 Sailors were killed.
Commander George Dewey was instrumental in quickly ending the Spanish-American War.
The development of airplanes occurred at this time.
The U.S. Navy was deployed to stop German U-boats from practicing unrestricted warfare and terrorizing the seas.
During this war, destroyers were used as the main defense against German U-boats. They also served as an escort for troop ships and supply convoys for the allies.
During this war, the air forces supported surface antisubmarine forces.
During this war, women enlisted in the Navy as Yeoman (F), releasing enlisted men for active service at sea.
The Battle of Coral Sea was fought by aircraft, all of which were launched from carriers. This battle saved Australia from being invaded by the Japanese.
The major naval battles in the Pacific during World War II and their significance is as follows:
a. Battle of Guadalcanal—The Solomon Islands came under allied control and the danger of Australia coming under Japanese attack was lessened
b. Battle of the Philippine Sea—Heavy losses of ships, aircraft, and pilots paralyzed the Japanese Fleet
c. Battle of Leyte Gulf—Deciding blow to the Japanese Navy. Losing control of the Philippines meant that the Japanese homeland was cut off from its main source of supplies from the south.
d. Battle of Midway—The turning point of the war in the Pacific.
e. The Battles of Okinawa and Iwo Jima—Defeat of the Japanese in these battles signaled an approach to the end of the war.
During World War II, the U.S. Navy protected convoys bound for Europe from German U-boat attack.
Some of the types of ships that changed the shape of the Navy changed during World War II include landing ships, frigates, attack cargo ships, transport ships, barracks ships, net tenders, repair ships, radar pickets minelayers, and mine sweepers.
On 30 Jul 1943, Congress authorized the establishment of the Women’s Reserve to fill acute shortages of personnel during World War II.
The Women’s Armed Services Integration Act abolished the Women’s Reserve and gave women full partnership in the Navy.
Some of the Navy’s roles during the Korean Conflict included—
a. Providing close air support to knock out bridges and block enemy routes with the use of jets from carriers
b. Navy helicopters spotted enemy artillery
c. Navy ships supported the amphibious landing at Inchon through massive shore bombardment before ground forces landed
d. The Navy successfully used its battleships to intervene in ground operations far ashore.
Some of the Navy’s missions during the Vietnam Police Action included—
a. Surface ship-based gunfire support
b. Carrier-based aircraft operations
c. Coastal interdiction patrols against the enemy
Other actions the Navy was involved with during the same timeframe as the Vietnam Police Action include—
a. The manned space exploration program
b. Manned undersea exploration, using deep submergence vehicles and underwater laboratories
During the Iraq – Iran War, the Navy escorted and protected oil tankers in transit to and from the Persian Gulf against Iranian attacks.
The Navy’s contributions during Operation Dessert Storm included—
a. Providing sea control
b. Naval gunfire support for sea to ground forces
c. Surface and subsurface missile attacks on selected targets in Iraq
During the late 18th century, battleships were classified as ships-of-the-line.
The craft developed in 1775 was a warfare submarine, named the Turtle, and invented by David Bushnell.
This raid was the first amphibious operation carried out by the American Navy and Marines.
The first official recognition of the American Stars and Stripes flag by a foreign nation was given by (a) France
(b) to the USS Ranger.
After the Revolutionary War, the U.S. Navy defended America’s small merchant ship fleet from the Barbary pirates.
Between the Revolutionary War and the War of 1812, the U.S. Navy was involved with the—
a. Quasi War with France
b. Barbary States War.
Lord Nelson said that the operation executed by LT Stephen Decatur and 84 seamen by slipping into the harbor of Tripoli and burning the captured frigate Philadelphia was “one of the most bold and daring acts of the age.”
Two actions of the U.S. Navy during the War of 1812 were—
a. The sea battle between the American frigate USS Constitution and the British frigate Guerriere
b. The victory of Captain Oliver Hazard Perry over the British squadron on Lake Erie.
During the Mexican-American War, the Navy blockaded the port cities on the Gulf and the “Mosquito Fleet” provided protective action during the first large-scale amphibious operation in U.S. military history.
During the last part of the 19th century, naval developments included—
a. Introduction of ironclad ships
b. Introduction of riverboats, rams, and gunboats
c. Development of submarines d. Construction of steeled-hull protected cruisers, signaling the end of the ironclads
e. Development of self-propelled torpedo and long-range torpedo boats
f. Development of the internal combustion engine for ships
After developing the ironclad, the Confederate Navy developed the submarine.
During the Civil War Battle of Mobile bay, Admiral Farragut gave order, “Damn the torpedoes! Full speed ahead.”
Alfred T. Mahan influenced naval strategy through his books that stressed the idea that without control of the seas, a nation couldn’t expect victory. He was one of the first instructors at the Naval War College and shared his knowledge on sea power and the importance of understanding naval needs.
The Spanish-American war began when the Maine was blown up and 250 Sailors were killed.
Commander George Dewey was instrumental in quickly ending the Spanish-American War.
The development of airplanes occurred at this time.
The U.S. Navy was deployed to stop German U-boats from practicing unrestricted warfare and terrorizing the seas.
During this war, destroyers were used as the main defense against German U-boats. They also served as an escort for troop ships and supply convoys for the allies.
During this war, the air forces supported surface antisubmarine forces.
During this war, women enlisted in the Navy as Yeoman (F), releasing enlisted men for active service at sea.
The Battle of Coral Sea was fought by aircraft, all of which were launched from carriers. This battle saved Australia from being invaded by the Japanese.
The major naval battles in the Pacific during World War II and their significance is as follows:
a. Battle of Guadalcanal—The Solomon Islands came under allied control and the danger of Australia coming under Japanese attack was lessened
b. Battle of the Philippine Sea—Heavy losses of ships, aircraft, and pilots paralyzed the Japanese Fleet
c. Battle of Leyte Gulf—Deciding blow to the Japanese Navy. Losing control of the Philippines meant that the Japanese homeland was cut off from its main source of supplies from the south.
d. Battle of Midway—The turning point of the war in the Pacific.
e. The Battles of Okinawa and Iwo Jima—Defeat of the Japanese in these battles signaled an approach to the end of the war.
During World War II, the U.S. Navy protected convoys bound for Europe from German U-boat attack.
Some of the types of ships that changed the shape of the Navy changed during World War II include landing ships, frigates, attack cargo ships, transport ships, barracks ships, net tenders, repair ships, radar pickets minelayers, and mine sweepers.
On 30 Jul 1943, Congress authorized the establishment of the Women’s Reserve to fill acute shortages of personnel during World War II.
The Women’s Armed Services Integration Act abolished the Women’s Reserve and gave women full partnership in the Navy.
Some of the Navy’s roles during the Korean Conflict included—
a. Providing close air support to knock out bridges and block enemy routes with the use of jets from carriers
b. Navy helicopters spotted enemy artillery
c. Navy ships supported the amphibious landing at Inchon through massive shore bombardment before ground forces landed
d. The Navy successfully used its battleships to intervene in ground operations far ashore.
Some of the Navy’s missions during the Vietnam Police Action included—
a. Surface ship-based gunfire support
b. Carrier-based aircraft operations
c. Coastal interdiction patrols against the enemy
Other actions the Navy was involved with during the same timeframe as the Vietnam Police Action include—
a. The manned space exploration program
b. Manned undersea exploration, using deep submergence vehicles and underwater laboratories
During the Iraq – Iran War, the Navy escorted and protected oil tankers in transit to and from the Persian Gulf against Iranian attacks.
The Navy’s contributions during Operation Dessert Storm included—
a. Providing sea control
b. Naval gunfire support for sea to ground forces
c. Surface and subsurface missile attacks on selected targets in Iraq
Study Guide - Basic Military Requirements (BMR CH 6)
The three military departments of the Department of Defense (DoD) are the—
a. Navy,
b. Army
c. Air Force.
The four missions of the DoD are—
a. To support and defend the Constitution of the United States against all enemies, foreign and domestic
b. To ensure the security of the United States, its possessions, and areas vital to its interests
c. To uphold and advance the national policies and interests of the United States
d. To safeguard the internal security of the United States
The two main objectives of the Navy are to—
a. Organize, train, equip, prepare, and maintain the readiness of the Navy and Marine corps forces to perform military missions
b. To support the Navy and Marine Corps forces as well as the forces of other military departments
The three basic components of the Department of the Navy are—
a. Navy Department
b. Operating forces
c. Shore Establishment
The U.S. Coast Guard operates under the following two departments:
a. Wartime—Department of the Navy
b. Peacetime—Department of Transportation
Aboard ship, the ship’s organization and regulations can be found in a publication known as the Shipboard Organization and Regulations Manual, which is based on the Standard Organization and Regulations of the U.S. Navy.
Some aspects of a ship’s organization covered by the Shipboard Organization and Regulations Manual include—
a. Unit’s admin organization, including watches
b. Coordination of evolutions and emergency procedures
c. Conduct of personnel
The two elements of a ship’s organization are the—
a. Battle organization
b. Administration organization
The information contained in the—
a. Battle organization includes the numbers and specialties the unit needs to fulfill its wartime missions
b. Administration organization makes sure the ship can fight or carry out its mission; training, maintenance, and routine operations are covered
The Navy Regs has an entire chapter covering commanding officer duties.
Aboard ship, the commanding officer is responsible for the safe navigation of the ship, the condition of the ship, and the appearance of material and personnel.
A CO has authority equal to responsibility, including the power to impose limited punishment. This power can’t be delegated.
The senior enlisted person transmits ideas and recommendations directly to the CO.
Duties of the XO include—
a. Arranging and coordinating ship/s work, drills , exercises , and policing and inspecting the ship
b. Investigating matters affecting crew discipline and conduct . Making recommendations to CO on these matters
c. Approving/disapproving liberty lists and leave requests
d. Inspecting the ship and receiving readiness reports from department heads; reporting to the CO when the ship is ready for action
Assistants to the XO include—
a. Personnel officer
b. Training officer
c. Educational services officer (ESO)
d. Drug and alcohol program advisor (DAPA)
e. Command master chief (CM/C)
The department head is responsible for and reports to the CO on matters that affect his/her department including administrative matters, operational readiness, and general condition of the equipment.
The division is the basic unit of a shipboard organization.
Division officer duties include—
a. Inspecting division personnel, spaces, equipment, and supplies
b. Maintaining copies of division orders and bills and displaying them in conspicuous places
c. Training division personnel and preparing them for battle
The four departments usually found in aircraft squadrons include—
a. Administration
b. Safety
c. Operations
d. Maintenance
The safety department is usually divided into
a. Ground safety
b. Aviation safety c. Nava l Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization (NATOPS)
The operations department is responsible for the operational readiness and tactical efficiency of the squadron.
The four divisions of an aircraft maintenance department are the—
a. Maintenance/material control
b. Quality assurance
c. Maintenance administration
d. Aircraft , avionics / armament, and airframes divisions
The branch officer is responsible to the division officer.
The five areas that affect the chain of command are—
a. Responsibility
b. Accountability
c. Direction
d. Communication
e. Work-related problems
In your organization, you can find out about the chain of command by asking someone in the administration office.
a. Navy,
b. Army
c. Air Force.
The four missions of the DoD are—
a. To support and defend the Constitution of the United States against all enemies, foreign and domestic
b. To ensure the security of the United States, its possessions, and areas vital to its interests
c. To uphold and advance the national policies and interests of the United States
d. To safeguard the internal security of the United States
The two main objectives of the Navy are to—
a. Organize, train, equip, prepare, and maintain the readiness of the Navy and Marine corps forces to perform military missions
b. To support the Navy and Marine Corps forces as well as the forces of other military departments
The three basic components of the Department of the Navy are—
a. Navy Department
b. Operating forces
c. Shore Establishment
The U.S. Coast Guard operates under the following two departments:
a. Wartime—Department of the Navy
b. Peacetime—Department of Transportation
Aboard ship, the ship’s organization and regulations can be found in a publication known as the Shipboard Organization and Regulations Manual, which is based on the Standard Organization and Regulations of the U.S. Navy.
Some aspects of a ship’s organization covered by the Shipboard Organization and Regulations Manual include—
a. Unit’s admin organization, including watches
b. Coordination of evolutions and emergency procedures
c. Conduct of personnel
The two elements of a ship’s organization are the—
a. Battle organization
b. Administration organization
The information contained in the—
a. Battle organization includes the numbers and specialties the unit needs to fulfill its wartime missions
b. Administration organization makes sure the ship can fight or carry out its mission; training, maintenance, and routine operations are covered
The Navy Regs has an entire chapter covering commanding officer duties.
Aboard ship, the commanding officer is responsible for the safe navigation of the ship, the condition of the ship, and the appearance of material and personnel.
A CO has authority equal to responsibility, including the power to impose limited punishment. This power can’t be delegated.
The senior enlisted person transmits ideas and recommendations directly to the CO.
Duties of the XO include—
a. Arranging and coordinating ship/s work, drills , exercises , and policing and inspecting the ship
b. Investigating matters affecting crew discipline and conduct . Making recommendations to CO on these matters
c. Approving/disapproving liberty lists and leave requests
d. Inspecting the ship and receiving readiness reports from department heads; reporting to the CO when the ship is ready for action
Assistants to the XO include—
a. Personnel officer
b. Training officer
c. Educational services officer (ESO)
d. Drug and alcohol program advisor (DAPA)
e. Command master chief (CM/C)
The department head is responsible for and reports to the CO on matters that affect his/her department including administrative matters, operational readiness, and general condition of the equipment.
The division is the basic unit of a shipboard organization.
Division officer duties include—
a. Inspecting division personnel, spaces, equipment, and supplies
b. Maintaining copies of division orders and bills and displaying them in conspicuous places
c. Training division personnel and preparing them for battle
The four departments usually found in aircraft squadrons include—
a. Administration
b. Safety
c. Operations
d. Maintenance
The safety department is usually divided into
a. Ground safety
b. Aviation safety c. Nava l Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization (NATOPS)
The operations department is responsible for the operational readiness and tactical efficiency of the squadron.
The four divisions of an aircraft maintenance department are the—
a. Maintenance/material control
b. Quality assurance
c. Maintenance administration
d. Aircraft , avionics / armament, and airframes divisions
The branch officer is responsible to the division officer.
The five areas that affect the chain of command are—
a. Responsibility
b. Accountability
c. Direction
d. Communication
e. Work-related problems
In your organization, you can find out about the chain of command by asking someone in the administration office.
Study Guide - Basic Military Requirements (BMR CH 7)
Ground tackle used on board ship includes—
a. Anchors
b. Anchor cable and chains
c. Chain stoppers
d. Bending shackles
e. Outboard swivel shots
f. Detachable links
Bower anchors are carried on the bow of a ship and secured in the hawspipe.
The standard mooring lines used to secure a normal size ship at a pier include the—
a. Bowline
b. Forward bow spring
c. After bow spring
d. Forward quarter spring
e. After quarter spring
f. Stern line
Aboard ship, deck fittings are used in securing mooring lines, in towing operations, and in securing heavy objects and equipment.
Boat booms are used to moor the ship’s boat while anchored.
Combatant craft include—
a. Mechanized landing craft (LCM)
b. Utility landing craft (LCU)
The term athwartships refers to the position of something that is across the boat from side to side at a right angle.
Three advantages of using nylon line over natural fiber line include—
a. Nylon line is 2 1/2 times stronger than natural fiber.
b. Nylon has greater strength and elasticity.
c. Nylon has greater resistance to weather.
To protect a natural fiber line from sharp edges and rough surfaces, you should use a chafing gear between the contact point of the line and the damaging surface.
You should use a wire rope when a great deal of wear and tear and weathering and heat is met, and greater strength is needed.
The overhand loop should be turned in a counterclockwise direction.
The first step you should take when joining two separate lines together using a beck bend is to make a bight on one line and run the bitter end of the other line up through the bight.
a. Anchors
b. Anchor cable and chains
c. Chain stoppers
d. Bending shackles
e. Outboard swivel shots
f. Detachable links
Bower anchors are carried on the bow of a ship and secured in the hawspipe.
The standard mooring lines used to secure a normal size ship at a pier include the—
a. Bowline
b. Forward bow spring
c. After bow spring
d. Forward quarter spring
e. After quarter spring
f. Stern line
Aboard ship, deck fittings are used in securing mooring lines, in towing operations, and in securing heavy objects and equipment.
Boat booms are used to moor the ship’s boat while anchored.
Combatant craft include—
a. Mechanized landing craft (LCM)
b. Utility landing craft (LCU)
The term athwartships refers to the position of something that is across the boat from side to side at a right angle.
Three advantages of using nylon line over natural fiber line include—
a. Nylon line is 2 1/2 times stronger than natural fiber.
b. Nylon has greater strength and elasticity.
c. Nylon has greater resistance to weather.
To protect a natural fiber line from sharp edges and rough surfaces, you should use a chafing gear between the contact point of the line and the damaging surface.
You should use a wire rope when a great deal of wear and tear and weathering and heat is met, and greater strength is needed.
The overhand loop should be turned in a counterclockwise direction.
The first step you should take when joining two separate lines together using a beck bend is to make a bight on one line and run the bitter end of the other line up through the bight.
Study Guide - Basic Military Requirements (BMR CH 8)
The size of a ship is usually given as displacement in long tons.
A ship’s armor is the protective armor along the sides of the ship, on the deck, and on some gun mounts and turrets.
The term used to indicate the speed of a ship is the knot, which is 1 nautical mile per hour or about 1 1/8 statute miles per hour.
The four categories of ships are—
a. Auxiliary ships
b. Combatant craft
c. Combatant ships
d. Support craft
The categories of warships include—
a. Aircraft carriers
b. Battleships
c. Cruisers
d. Destroyers
e. Frigates
f. Submarines
The battleships are named after states.
The two basic classes of cruisers are—
a. Guided-missile cruisers (CG)
b. Guided-missile cruisers nuclear (CGN)
For protection, the destroyer depends on its speed and mobility.
The class of ship developed for the purpose of open ocean escort and patrol was the frigates.
The two classes of submarines are the—
a. Attack submarine, and the
b. Ballistic missile submarine
The class of ship used to land large numbers of personnel, equipment, and supplies on enemy held territory is the amphibious war ship.
The term used to describe the transfer of fuel and supplies between ships while under way is replenishment at sea.
Usually, ships maintain a distance of 100 feet while taking on supplies at sea.
A receiving ship can stay on station in combat formation while under going vertical replenishment.
The largest and most powerful auxiliary ship is the fast combat support ship (AOE).
Rescue, salvage, and towing ships provide rapid firefighting, dewatering, battle damage repair, and rescue towing assistance.
Support craft designators usually start with the letter Y
A ship’s armor is the protective armor along the sides of the ship, on the deck, and on some gun mounts and turrets.
The term used to indicate the speed of a ship is the knot, which is 1 nautical mile per hour or about 1 1/8 statute miles per hour.
The four categories of ships are—
a. Auxiliary ships
b. Combatant craft
c. Combatant ships
d. Support craft
The categories of warships include—
a. Aircraft carriers
b. Battleships
c. Cruisers
d. Destroyers
e. Frigates
f. Submarines
The battleships are named after states.
The two basic classes of cruisers are—
a. Guided-missile cruisers (CG)
b. Guided-missile cruisers nuclear (CGN)
For protection, the destroyer depends on its speed and mobility.
The class of ship developed for the purpose of open ocean escort and patrol was the frigates.
The two classes of submarines are the—
a. Attack submarine, and the
b. Ballistic missile submarine
The class of ship used to land large numbers of personnel, equipment, and supplies on enemy held territory is the amphibious war ship.
The term used to describe the transfer of fuel and supplies between ships while under way is replenishment at sea.
Usually, ships maintain a distance of 100 feet while taking on supplies at sea.
A receiving ship can stay on station in combat formation while under going vertical replenishment.
The largest and most powerful auxiliary ship is the fast combat support ship (AOE).
Rescue, salvage, and towing ships provide rapid firefighting, dewatering, battle damage repair, and rescue towing assistance.
Support craft designators usually start with the letter Y
Study Guide - Basic Military Requirements (BMR CH 9)
Define the following terms.
a. Courtesy—an act or verbal expression of consideration or respect for others
b. Custom—a usual way of acting in a situation that has been practiced so long that it has the force of law
A salute is a required act of military courtesy.
The hand salute is the most common form of salute.
When in uniform, Navy personnel salute the flag, anthem, and officers.
True, under naval customs, the hand salute is accompanied by a word of greeting.
As an enlisted person, you should salute all officers.
When boarding a ship in which the national ensign is flying, you should—
a. Stop on reaching the upper platform of the accommodation ladder or end of brow
b. Face the ensign and salute
c. Salute the OOD
As a sentry at a gangway, you should render a salute—
a. To all officers going or coming over the side
b. When passing or being passed by officers close aboard in boats
The three rifle salutes are—
a. Present arms
b. Rifle salute at order arms
c. Rifle salute at right shoulder arms
Honors are salutes rendered to ships, high-ranking individuals, and nations.
Manning the rail is a passing honor rendered to the President of the United States.
A ruler of a country recognized by the United States rates a 21-gun salute.
Hoisting and lowering the national flag at 0800 and sunset are known as morning colors and evening colors.
Shifting the colors—as a ship gets underway, the ensign is shifted from its in-port position on the stern to its at-sea position on the mainmast.
National flags flown at half - mast are internationally recognized symbols of mourning.
When indoors at an event and the anthem is being played but the flag is not displayed, you should—
a. In uniform and covered—render a hand salute
b. In uniform and uncovered—place your hand over your heart
c. In civilian clothes—place your hand over your heart
The quarterdeck is an area designated by the CO that serves as the focal point for official and ceremonial functions.
Aboard ship, the CO is addressed as captain, regardless of rank
a. Courtesy—an act or verbal expression of consideration or respect for others
b. Custom—a usual way of acting in a situation that has been practiced so long that it has the force of law
A salute is a required act of military courtesy.
The hand salute is the most common form of salute.
When in uniform, Navy personnel salute the flag, anthem, and officers.
True, under naval customs, the hand salute is accompanied by a word of greeting.
As an enlisted person, you should salute all officers.
When boarding a ship in which the national ensign is flying, you should—
a. Stop on reaching the upper platform of the accommodation ladder or end of brow
b. Face the ensign and salute
c. Salute the OOD
As a sentry at a gangway, you should render a salute—
a. To all officers going or coming over the side
b. When passing or being passed by officers close aboard in boats
The three rifle salutes are—
a. Present arms
b. Rifle salute at order arms
c. Rifle salute at right shoulder arms
Honors are salutes rendered to ships, high-ranking individuals, and nations.
Manning the rail is a passing honor rendered to the President of the United States.
A ruler of a country recognized by the United States rates a 21-gun salute.
Hoisting and lowering the national flag at 0800 and sunset are known as morning colors and evening colors.
Shifting the colors—as a ship gets underway, the ensign is shifted from its in-port position on the stern to its at-sea position on the mainmast.
National flags flown at half - mast are internationally recognized symbols of mourning.
When indoors at an event and the anthem is being played but the flag is not displayed, you should—
a. In uniform and covered—render a hand salute
b. In uniform and uncovered—place your hand over your heart
c. In civilian clothes—place your hand over your heart
The quarterdeck is an area designated by the CO that serves as the focal point for official and ceremonial functions.
Aboard ship, the CO is addressed as captain, regardless of rank
Study Guide - Basic Military Requirements (BMR CH 10)
The commanding officer can authorize the transfer of enlisted person’s uniform clothing to another individual.
You may wear any of the following with civilian clothes:
a. All-weather raincoat
b. Underwear
c. Shoes
d. Belt with civilian buckle
e. Socks/hosiery
f. Sweaters
g. Neckties
A striker mark is a specialty mark of a rating worn by qualified E-1 through E-3 personnel.
To be eligible to wear a service stripe, you must have served 4 full years of active or reserve service in any branch of the U.S. Armed Forces.
A rear admiral (lower half) wears one silver star metal grade insignia on the uniform collar.
A line officer wears a five-pointed gold star on the sleeve insignia.
Personnel qualified in underwater and beach reconnaissance and demolition wear the Special Warfare insignia.
If a person has four or more ribbons, that person must wear three on the uniform.
Military decorations include the following:
a. Medal of Honor
b. Navy Cross
c. Distinguished Service Medal
d. Purple Heart
Nonmilitary decorations include the following:
a. Presidential Medal of Freedom
b. Gold and Silver Life Saving Medals
c. National Sciences Medal
The person wears the medals from top to bottom inboard to outboard, within rows.
A person shouldn’t take any of the following actions with regard to their ID card:
a. Alter it
b. Intentionally damage it
c. Lend it to someone
d. Counterfeit it
e. Use it in an unauthorized manner
The military ID card identifies you to the capturing authorities if held as a prisoner of war. The ID tags (dog tags) are designed for identification purposes in casualty reporting and for grave registration of members who die in combat.
The following information is embossed on the dog tags:
a. Full name
b. Social security number (SSN) and the letters USN
c. Blood type and Rh factor d. Religious preference of the wearer
While in uniform, you may wear—
a. One wristwatch
b. One bracelet
To find an explanation of grooming standards, you should refer to the U.S. Navy Uniform Regulations Manual.
When in uniform, female Sailors may wear 6mm ball-type earrings (either post or screw on) with a brushed matte finish. The following information applies:
a. E-6 and below wear silver earrings.
b. CPOs and officers wear gold earrings.
Military formations have the following purposes:
a. To move a large number of personnel from one place to another in an orderly fashion.
b. To make personnel alert and to pay attention to information or instructions being put out.
c. To teach a group of individuals to act as a team.
With reference to military formations rank or line is a formation of elements or persons abreast of each other or side by side.
The two parts of a position and facing command are—
a. Preparatory command
b. Execution Command
The four positions of rest for a formation are—
a. Parade rest
b. At ease
c. Rest
d. Fall out
The command given to turn your head 45° to the right is Eyes Right
You may wear any of the following with civilian clothes:
a. All-weather raincoat
b. Underwear
c. Shoes
d. Belt with civilian buckle
e. Socks/hosiery
f. Sweaters
g. Neckties
A striker mark is a specialty mark of a rating worn by qualified E-1 through E-3 personnel.
To be eligible to wear a service stripe, you must have served 4 full years of active or reserve service in any branch of the U.S. Armed Forces.
A rear admiral (lower half) wears one silver star metal grade insignia on the uniform collar.
A line officer wears a five-pointed gold star on the sleeve insignia.
Personnel qualified in underwater and beach reconnaissance and demolition wear the Special Warfare insignia.
If a person has four or more ribbons, that person must wear three on the uniform.
Military decorations include the following:
a. Medal of Honor
b. Navy Cross
c. Distinguished Service Medal
d. Purple Heart
Nonmilitary decorations include the following:
a. Presidential Medal of Freedom
b. Gold and Silver Life Saving Medals
c. National Sciences Medal
The person wears the medals from top to bottom inboard to outboard, within rows.
A person shouldn’t take any of the following actions with regard to their ID card:
a. Alter it
b. Intentionally damage it
c. Lend it to someone
d. Counterfeit it
e. Use it in an unauthorized manner
The military ID card identifies you to the capturing authorities if held as a prisoner of war. The ID tags (dog tags) are designed for identification purposes in casualty reporting and for grave registration of members who die in combat.
The following information is embossed on the dog tags:
a. Full name
b. Social security number (SSN) and the letters USN
c. Blood type and Rh factor d. Religious preference of the wearer
While in uniform, you may wear—
a. One wristwatch
b. One bracelet
To find an explanation of grooming standards, you should refer to the U.S. Navy Uniform Regulations Manual.
When in uniform, female Sailors may wear 6mm ball-type earrings (either post or screw on) with a brushed matte finish. The following information applies:
a. E-6 and below wear silver earrings.
b. CPOs and officers wear gold earrings.
Military formations have the following purposes:
a. To move a large number of personnel from one place to another in an orderly fashion.
b. To make personnel alert and to pay attention to information or instructions being put out.
c. To teach a group of individuals to act as a team.
With reference to military formations rank or line is a formation of elements or persons abreast of each other or side by side.
The two parts of a position and facing command are—
a. Preparatory command
b. Execution Command
The four positions of rest for a formation are—
a. Parade rest
b. At ease
c. Rest
d. Fall out
The command given to turn your head 45° to the right is Eyes Right
Study Guide - Basic Military Requirements (BMR CH 11)
The M-14 rifle is chambered to fire the 7.62-mm NATO cartridge.
Fully loaded, the M-14 weighs 11 pounds.
Identify the following rifle components as either M16A1 or M16A2:
The first step in cleaning the M16 rifle is to point the selector lever toward SAFE.
The M16 rifle carries 20 or 30 rounds of ammunition.
When loading the M16 rifle, you shouldn’t ride the charging handle forward because the bolt may fail to lock.
When the selector is set for burst, the M16A2 fires three rounds.
The conditions that must exist to consider the M16 rifle clear include—
a. No case or rounds is/are in the chamber
b. The magazine is out
c. The bolt carrier is to the rear
d. The selector lever is on the SAFE position
The cleaning materials for the M16 are stored in the rifle stock.
A .45-caliber pistol magazine will hold seven cartridges.
The .45-caliber pistol was designed to be used as an individual weapon for close use.
The three safety features of the 9mm service pistol are—
a. Ambidextrous safety
b. Firing pin block
c. Half cock notch
When loading your pistol, you should make sure the safety is in the down position.
The shotgun has the advantage of being able to expel anywhere from nine to hundreds of projectiles covering a wide area.
When you have properly aligned your sights, the top of the front sight is level with the horizontal center line of the rear sight, and the body of the front sight is centered between the rear sight aperture.
The distance between your eye and the rear sight is referred to as eye relief.
At times, it’s necessary to blacken sights during sighting and aiming exercises to reduce reflection and glare.
The three standard positions for shooting are—
a. Standing
b. Kneeling
c. Sitting
The three sitting positions for shooting are—
a. Open leg
b. Cross leg
c. Cross ankle
The single most important factor in good marksmanship is trigger control.
The acronym BRASS means breath, relax, aim, slack, squeeze.
When sighting with a pistol, the front sight is level with the top of the rear sight.
Fully loaded, the M-14 weighs 11 pounds.
Identify the following rifle components as either M16A1 or M16A2:
The first step in cleaning the M16 rifle is to point the selector lever toward SAFE.
The M16 rifle carries 20 or 30 rounds of ammunition.
When loading the M16 rifle, you shouldn’t ride the charging handle forward because the bolt may fail to lock.
When the selector is set for burst, the M16A2 fires three rounds.
The conditions that must exist to consider the M16 rifle clear include—
a. No case or rounds is/are in the chamber
b. The magazine is out
c. The bolt carrier is to the rear
d. The selector lever is on the SAFE position
The cleaning materials for the M16 are stored in the rifle stock.
A .45-caliber pistol magazine will hold seven cartridges.
The .45-caliber pistol was designed to be used as an individual weapon for close use.
The three safety features of the 9mm service pistol are—
a. Ambidextrous safety
b. Firing pin block
c. Half cock notch
When loading your pistol, you should make sure the safety is in the down position.
The shotgun has the advantage of being able to expel anywhere from nine to hundreds of projectiles covering a wide area.
When you have properly aligned your sights, the top of the front sight is level with the horizontal center line of the rear sight, and the body of the front sight is centered between the rear sight aperture.
The distance between your eye and the rear sight is referred to as eye relief.
At times, it’s necessary to blacken sights during sighting and aiming exercises to reduce reflection and glare.
The three standard positions for shooting are—
a. Standing
b. Kneeling
c. Sitting
The three sitting positions for shooting are—
a. Open leg
b. Cross leg
c. Cross ankle
The single most important factor in good marksmanship is trigger control.
The acronym BRASS means breath, relax, aim, slack, squeeze.
When sighting with a pistol, the front sight is level with the top of the rear sight.
Study Guide - Basic Military Requirements (BMR CH 12)
The damage control organization is divided into the—
a. Administrative organization
b. Battle organization
The purpose of the administrative phase of DC is to establish and maintain material readiness conditions.
The engineer officer is responsible for maintaining properly trained DCPOs, repair parties, and repair locker personnel.
The XO is the senior person assigned as team leader on DCTT.
The DCPO is responsible for making sure that all battle lanterns, dog wrenches, spanners, and other damage control equipment are in place and in a usable condition within their division.
Before anyone enters a poorly ventilated space or void, the gas free engineer (GFE) certifies the space as safe.
The battle phase of damage control starts when the ship receives actual damage.
The battle station for the DCA is DCC/CSS.
DCC receives reports and casualty status from repair parties.
The minimum requirement to be a member of the in-port emergency team is to be repair party qualified.
The primary missions of the rescue and assistance team are to assist persons from the water, other units in distress, and other persons or activities in distress ashore.
General quarters is the highest state of readiness.
The X40J circuitry is commonly referred to as the salt and pepper line.
The alarms that can override the microphone control of the IMC are the
a. Collision
b. Chemical attack
c. General
d. Flight crash
When all communications systems fail, messengers are used to deliver messages and orders between repair lockers and DCC.
Survivability of the ship can be ensured by compartmentation.
The three basic material readiness conditions are—
a. XRAY
b. YOKE
c. ZEBRA
Material condition XRAY provides the least amount of watertightness.
Normally, YOKE is set at sea and in port during wartime.
Material condition ZEBRA is set when GQ is sounded.
DOG ZEBRA fittings are closed to set darken ship.
To find a list of all DC fittings within a compartment, you should refer to the compartment checkoff list.
Fire prevention is the responsibility of all hands.
The three components that make up a fire are—
a. Heat
b. Fuel
c. Oxygen.
Most cases of spontaneous combustion involve the process of rapid oxidation.
The three methods of heat transfer are—
a. Conduction
b. Radiation
c. Convection
Sea water is the most available heat-removing agent for shipboard use.
AFFF was developed to combat class B fires.
CO2 is the primary agent to disrupt the fire triangle of class C fires.
Water fog is an effective agent against a class D fire.
The purposes of the following items are as follows:
a. Damage control shoring chest. A chest that is divided into compartments for storing materials used for shoring.
b. P-100 pump. The P-100 pump can be used to fight fires or to dewater spaces.
c. Firefighter ensemble. The firefighter ensemble protects personnel from short duration flames, heat, and falling debris.
d. Anti-flash clothing. Anti-flash clothing protects personnel from heat caused by high explosive weapons and from burns caused by fire. There are two items that make up anti-flash clothing—anti-flash gloves and the anti-flash hood.
e. Fire hose station. The fire hose station is where the fire pl ug and associated equipment is located.
MATERIALS CLASSES OF FIRE
a. Hydraulic fluid (Class B)
b. Energized circuit board (Class C)
c. Paper (Class A)
d. Gasoline (Class B)
e. Magnesium (Class D)
f. Cloth (Class A)
g. Titanium (Class D)
a. Administrative organization
b. Battle organization
The purpose of the administrative phase of DC is to establish and maintain material readiness conditions.
The engineer officer is responsible for maintaining properly trained DCPOs, repair parties, and repair locker personnel.
The XO is the senior person assigned as team leader on DCTT.
The DCPO is responsible for making sure that all battle lanterns, dog wrenches, spanners, and other damage control equipment are in place and in a usable condition within their division.
Before anyone enters a poorly ventilated space or void, the gas free engineer (GFE) certifies the space as safe.
The battle phase of damage control starts when the ship receives actual damage.
The battle station for the DCA is DCC/CSS.
DCC receives reports and casualty status from repair parties.
The minimum requirement to be a member of the in-port emergency team is to be repair party qualified.
The primary missions of the rescue and assistance team are to assist persons from the water, other units in distress, and other persons or activities in distress ashore.
General quarters is the highest state of readiness.
The X40J circuitry is commonly referred to as the salt and pepper line.
The alarms that can override the microphone control of the IMC are the
a. Collision
b. Chemical attack
c. General
d. Flight crash
When all communications systems fail, messengers are used to deliver messages and orders between repair lockers and DCC.
Survivability of the ship can be ensured by compartmentation.
The three basic material readiness conditions are—
a. XRAY
b. YOKE
c. ZEBRA
Material condition XRAY provides the least amount of watertightness.
Normally, YOKE is set at sea and in port during wartime.
Material condition ZEBRA is set when GQ is sounded.
DOG ZEBRA fittings are closed to set darken ship.
To find a list of all DC fittings within a compartment, you should refer to the compartment checkoff list.
Fire prevention is the responsibility of all hands.
The three components that make up a fire are—
a. Heat
b. Fuel
c. Oxygen.
Most cases of spontaneous combustion involve the process of rapid oxidation.
The three methods of heat transfer are—
a. Conduction
b. Radiation
c. Convection
Sea water is the most available heat-removing agent for shipboard use.
AFFF was developed to combat class B fires.
CO2 is the primary agent to disrupt the fire triangle of class C fires.
Water fog is an effective agent against a class D fire.
The purposes of the following items are as follows:
a. Damage control shoring chest. A chest that is divided into compartments for storing materials used for shoring.
b. P-100 pump. The P-100 pump can be used to fight fires or to dewater spaces.
c. Firefighter ensemble. The firefighter ensemble protects personnel from short duration flames, heat, and falling debris.
d. Anti-flash clothing. Anti-flash clothing protects personnel from heat caused by high explosive weapons and from burns caused by fire. There are two items that make up anti-flash clothing—anti-flash gloves and the anti-flash hood.
e. Fire hose station. The fire hose station is where the fire pl ug and associated equipment is located.
MATERIALS CLASSES OF FIRE
a. Hydraulic fluid (Class B)
b. Energized circuit board (Class C)
c. Paper (Class A)
d. Gasoline (Class B)
e. Magnesium (Class D)
f. Cloth (Class A)
g. Titanium (Class D)
Study Guide - Basic Military Requirements (BMR CH 13)
Weapons of mass destruction are weapons that can be used to destroy large areas or kill and disable large segments of a population.
The most probable delivery method for chemical or biological weapons is by aerosol.
The two types of antipersonnel agents are—
a. Casualt
b. Incapacitating
The use of nerve agents produces symptoms that are similar to heat stress, which is a more common condition.
Moist areas of the body are most affected by blister agents.
The first action you should take if exposed to a blood agent, is to don (put on) a protective mask.
True, cough suppressant and pain relievers can be given to a victim of a choking agent.
BW is the intentional use of
(a) living organisms, toxins, and microtoxins to disable or destroy
(b) people, domestic animals, crops, or supplies.
The disadvantage an enemy has when using BW agents is that BW agents degrade rapidly when exposed to environmental conditions such as ultraviolet light, radiation, heat, dryness, or humidity.
The symptoms of biological disease in its early stages include—
a. Fever
b. Malaise
c. Inflammation
The four types of nuclear weapon explosion classification are—
a. High altitude blast
b. Air blast
c. Surface blast
d. Surface burst
Residual radiation is more dangerous than initial radiation because residual radiation is caused by large amounts of surface material drawn up into the cloud, which falls back to earth as radioactive fallout and affects a large area.
A secondary blast can cause injuries by its strong winds that collapse structures and trees.
Nuclear radiation hazards include—
a. Alpha particles
b. Beta particles
c. Gamma rays
d. Neutrons
The measures that should be taken to protect electronic equipment from the effects of EMP are—
a. Metal shielding
b. Good grounding
c. Surge arresters
d. Proper arrangement of electrical wiring
A survey team consists of a—
a. Monitor,
b. Recorder,
c. Messenger
The two types of surveys include—
a. Rapid
b. Detailed
Biological markers are
(a) blue
(b)a red inscription.
To calculate safe entry time and stay time in a radiologically contaminated area, you need to know the—
a. Dose rate
b. Dose
The only known method for detecting BW contaminants is to gather samples and ship them to a laboratory.
To check areas suspected of being contaminated by CW agents, you should use an M256A1 kit.
False, eating food after a CBR attack is not okay.
Aboard ship, the safest place to be during a nuclear attack is below the main deck.
The two functions of an MCU-2/P mask are to—
a. Filter air
b. Purify
It should take you 10 seconds to don and adjust anMCU -2/P mask.
The types of clothing that are useful for CBR defense are—
a. Wet-weather clothes
b. Ordinary work clothes
The acronym MOPP stands for Mission Oriented Protective Posture.
There are four MOPP levels.
MOPP level 4 provides the most protection.
At MOPP level 2 material condition ZEBRA (modified) is set.
There are four levels of decontamination.
The primary purpose of level 1 decontamination is to safeguard you in protective gear that includes mask, overgarment, boots, and gloves.
The two types of contamination hazards are—
a. Pick up hazards
b. Transfer hazards
Washdown is the most effective way to remove radioactive particles from the ship.
Chemical disinfectant is the most effective way to decontaminate areas exposed to BW agents.
Decon stations are divided into an—
a. Unclean area,
b. Washing area,
c. Clean area
The most probable delivery method for chemical or biological weapons is by aerosol.
The two types of antipersonnel agents are—
a. Casualt
b. Incapacitating
The use of nerve agents produces symptoms that are similar to heat stress, which is a more common condition.
Moist areas of the body are most affected by blister agents.
The first action you should take if exposed to a blood agent, is to don (put on) a protective mask.
True, cough suppressant and pain relievers can be given to a victim of a choking agent.
BW is the intentional use of
(a) living organisms, toxins, and microtoxins to disable or destroy
(b) people, domestic animals, crops, or supplies.
The disadvantage an enemy has when using BW agents is that BW agents degrade rapidly when exposed to environmental conditions such as ultraviolet light, radiation, heat, dryness, or humidity.
The symptoms of biological disease in its early stages include—
a. Fever
b. Malaise
c. Inflammation
The four types of nuclear weapon explosion classification are—
a. High altitude blast
b. Air blast
c. Surface blast
d. Surface burst
Residual radiation is more dangerous than initial radiation because residual radiation is caused by large amounts of surface material drawn up into the cloud, which falls back to earth as radioactive fallout and affects a large area.
A secondary blast can cause injuries by its strong winds that collapse structures and trees.
Nuclear radiation hazards include—
a. Alpha particles
b. Beta particles
c. Gamma rays
d. Neutrons
The measures that should be taken to protect electronic equipment from the effects of EMP are—
a. Metal shielding
b. Good grounding
c. Surge arresters
d. Proper arrangement of electrical wiring
A survey team consists of a—
a. Monitor,
b. Recorder,
c. Messenger
The two types of surveys include—
a. Rapid
b. Detailed
Biological markers are
(a) blue
(b)a red inscription.
To calculate safe entry time and stay time in a radiologically contaminated area, you need to know the—
a. Dose rate
b. Dose
The only known method for detecting BW contaminants is to gather samples and ship them to a laboratory.
To check areas suspected of being contaminated by CW agents, you should use an M256A1 kit.
False, eating food after a CBR attack is not okay.
Aboard ship, the safest place to be during a nuclear attack is below the main deck.
The two functions of an MCU-2/P mask are to—
a. Filter air
b. Purify
It should take you 10 seconds to don and adjust anMCU -2/P mask.
The types of clothing that are useful for CBR defense are—
a. Wet-weather clothes
b. Ordinary work clothes
The acronym MOPP stands for Mission Oriented Protective Posture.
There are four MOPP levels.
MOPP level 4 provides the most protection.
At MOPP level 2 material condition ZEBRA (modified) is set.
There are four levels of decontamination.
The primary purpose of level 1 decontamination is to safeguard you in protective gear that includes mask, overgarment, boots, and gloves.
The two types of contamination hazards are—
a. Pick up hazards
b. Transfer hazards
Washdown is the most effective way to remove radioactive particles from the ship.
Chemical disinfectant is the most effective way to decontaminate areas exposed to BW agents.
Decon stations are divided into an—
a. Unclean area,
b. Washing area,
c. Clean area
Study Guide - Basic Military Requirements (BMR CH 14)
The primary purpose of first aid is to save lives, prevent further injury, and limit infection.
The primary tasks to take when you administer first aid are to—
a. maintain breathing,
b. stop bleeding and maintain circulation,
c. prevent or treat shock.
The general first-aid rule for—
a. shock is to place the victim on his/her back with the head slightly lower than the feet
b. broken bones is to keep the person still until you immobilize the injured part
c. transport of injured persons is on the litter with the litter carried feet first
The first-aid treatment for respiratory failure is artificial ventilation.
Artificial ventilation should be administered only when natural breathing has stopped. NEVER give artificial ventilation to a person who is still breathing.
The three types of artificial ventilation are—
a. Mouth to mouth
b. Mouth to nose
c. Back pressure/arm lift
Cardiac arrest is the complete stoppage of heart function.
To be effective, CPR must be started within 4 minutes of the onset of cardiac arrest.
When you use the one-rescuer technique of CPR, the ratio of compressions to ventilations is 15 compressions to 2 ventilations.
When you use the two-rescuer technique of CPR, the ratio of compressions to ventilations is 5 compressions to 1 ventilation.
The symptoms of airway blockage are—
a. Inability of the victim to speak
b. Exaggerated breathing efforts
c. Skin turning blue
The four methods you can use to clear a person’s airway are—
a. Standing abdominal thrust
b. Reclining abdominal thrust
c. Standing chest thrust
d. Reclining chest thrust
The three types of blood vessels the body uses to circulate blood are—
a. Arteries—large vessels that carry blood away from the heart
b. Veins—large vessels that carry blood back to the heart
c. Capillaries—a connecting network of smaller vessels between the arteries and the veins
Hemorrhage is severe enough to endanger life when arteries or veins are cut.
A loss of 2 pints of blood is usually enough to cause shock.
Blood carried by—
a. Capillaries is brick red
b. Veins is dark red
c. Arteries is bright red
The only way to stop serious bleeding is the application of pressure.
A constricting band is a pad, a band, and a device for tightening the band so that the blood vessels will be compressed. Only use a constricting band when hemorrhage can’t be controlled any other way. Constricting bands are used above the wound. They aren’t used for wounds on the head, neck, or body.
When a constricting band or a battle dressing has been applied, only medical personnel should release/remove it.
A battle dressing is a combination compress and bandage, in which a sterile gauze pad is fastened to a gauze, muslin, or adhesive bandage.
When applying a battle dressing, you should make sure that the dressing covers the entire wound.
Shock is a condition where the blood circulation is seriously disturbed.
The symptoms of shock in a person are—
a. Weak and rapid pulse
b. Shallow, rapid, and irregular breathing
c. Lower temperature—the arms, face, and legs feel cold to the touch
d. Sweating
e. Pale skin color; however, in some cases, it may be bluish or reddish
f. Dilated (enlarged) pupils g. Thirst and an feeling of weakness, faintness, or dizziness
True, you should keep an injured person warm enough to be comfortable, but not warm enough to become overheated.
If you suspect that a person is in shock, you should keep the person lying flat on his/her back with the feet slightly elevated (raised) so that the position encourages the blood to flow back to the brain.
In the Navy, the most frequent suicide victim is an enlisted male between 17 and 24 years old and in paygrades E-1 through E-6.
The most common causes of suicide are—
a. Breakup of a close relationship
b. Death of a loved one
c. Loss of social or financial status
d. Effects of drugs and/or alcohol
Depression is often associated with suicide.
Some actions you can take if you believe someone is suicidal are—
a. Take all threats seriously
b. Confront the problem
c. Answer cries for help
d. Let the person know you care
e. Listen
f. Get professional help
g. Don’t leave the person alone
Burns are defined as follows:
a. First-degree burn—Mildest burn. Slight redness, tenderness , and in creased temperature of the burned area.
b. Second-degree burn—More serious than first-degree burn. Inner skin may be damaged, blistering, severe pain, some dehydration, and possible shock.
c. Third-degree burn—Most serious burn. Skin is destroyed and possibly tissue and muscle beneath it. Skin may be charred or white and lifeless (from scalds). Some form of shock will result.
By immersing the burned area in cold water or by applying cold compresses, you minimize pain and reduce the burning effect in deeper layers of the skin.
If a burn covers more than 20% of a victim’s body, you should apply sterile, dry bandages.
When treating burns you should NEVER apply petrolatum gauze, break blisters or apply butter, lard, or Vaseline™.
The three most important signs of heatstroke are—
a. Dry, hot skin
b. Constricted pupils
c. Very high body temperature (usually above 105ºF)
The three most important signs of heat exhaustion are—
a. Moist, clammy skin
b. Dilated pupils
c. Normal or subnormal temperature
The aim of first-aid treatment for heatstroke or heat exhaustion is to reduce body temperature.
True, in case of heatstroke/heat exhaustion, you should transport the victim to a medical facility as soon as possible.
Fractures are—
a. Closed fracture
b. Open fracture
The symptoms of a fractured leg or arm include—
a. Pain and tenderness
b. Discoloration of the skin
c. Creaking or cracking
d. Inability to use the part
e. Motion at points other than joints
f. Swelling
g. Deformity
To give first aid to someone with a fractured leg or arm, you should—
a. Get medical aid as soon as possible
b. Don’t move the victim until splints have been applied, unless the victim’s life is in danger
c. Treat for shock
d. Don’t try to find a fracture by grating the ends of the bone together
e. Don’t try to set a broken bone
f. If a long bone in the leg is fractured, carefully straighten the leg so it can be immobilized g. Apply splints
The types of fractures that should be treated by medical personnel are—
a. Jaw
b. Ribs
c. Spine
You should never move a person who might have a fractured spine or neck because moving that person might cause permanent paralysis.
The symptoms a victim might have with a sprained or strained leg include—
a. Pain, lameness, stiffness, or pressure
b. Pain on movement
c. Swelling and tenderness
d. discoloration
e. With a strain, a distinct gap at the site of the injury
The first aid that should be given to a victim suspected of having a sprained or strained leg includes treating all sprains as fractures until ruled out by X-rays.
One of the easiest ways to carry an unconscious person is to use the fireman’s lift/carry.
When rescuing a person who has received an electric shock, you should not touch the victim’s body, wire, or any other object that may conduct electricity.
You should carry a stretcher with the victim’s feet first so the rear stretcher bearer can see the victim for signs of breathing difficulty.
To transport an injured person from engine-room spaces, a Neil Robertson stretcher is usually used.
Emergency rescue lines are used when an injured person must be transported and no other means is available.
Personal hygiene is important for the following reasons:
a. Close living quarters
b. Well-being of the crew
c. Reduced chance of illness
d. Morale increase
The three most common dental conditions caused by poor dental hygiene are—
a. Tooth decay
b. Reddening of the gums
c. Gum and bone disease
To avoid dental problems, you should—
a. Brush your teeth
b. Floss your teeth
c. Have dental checkups every 6 months
The two most common sexually transmitted diseases are—
a. Syphilis
b. Gonorrhea
AIDS is spread through—
a. Sexual contact
b. Needle sharing by drug users
c. Transfusions
The primary tasks to take when you administer first aid are to—
a. maintain breathing,
b. stop bleeding and maintain circulation,
c. prevent or treat shock.
The general first-aid rule for—
a. shock is to place the victim on his/her back with the head slightly lower than the feet
b. broken bones is to keep the person still until you immobilize the injured part
c. transport of injured persons is on the litter with the litter carried feet first
The first-aid treatment for respiratory failure is artificial ventilation.
Artificial ventilation should be administered only when natural breathing has stopped. NEVER give artificial ventilation to a person who is still breathing.
The three types of artificial ventilation are—
a. Mouth to mouth
b. Mouth to nose
c. Back pressure/arm lift
Cardiac arrest is the complete stoppage of heart function.
To be effective, CPR must be started within 4 minutes of the onset of cardiac arrest.
When you use the one-rescuer technique of CPR, the ratio of compressions to ventilations is 15 compressions to 2 ventilations.
When you use the two-rescuer technique of CPR, the ratio of compressions to ventilations is 5 compressions to 1 ventilation.
The symptoms of airway blockage are—
a. Inability of the victim to speak
b. Exaggerated breathing efforts
c. Skin turning blue
The four methods you can use to clear a person’s airway are—
a. Standing abdominal thrust
b. Reclining abdominal thrust
c. Standing chest thrust
d. Reclining chest thrust
The three types of blood vessels the body uses to circulate blood are—
a. Arteries—large vessels that carry blood away from the heart
b. Veins—large vessels that carry blood back to the heart
c. Capillaries—a connecting network of smaller vessels between the arteries and the veins
Hemorrhage is severe enough to endanger life when arteries or veins are cut.
A loss of 2 pints of blood is usually enough to cause shock.
Blood carried by—
a. Capillaries is brick red
b. Veins is dark red
c. Arteries is bright red
The only way to stop serious bleeding is the application of pressure.
A constricting band is a pad, a band, and a device for tightening the band so that the blood vessels will be compressed. Only use a constricting band when hemorrhage can’t be controlled any other way. Constricting bands are used above the wound. They aren’t used for wounds on the head, neck, or body.
When a constricting band or a battle dressing has been applied, only medical personnel should release/remove it.
A battle dressing is a combination compress and bandage, in which a sterile gauze pad is fastened to a gauze, muslin, or adhesive bandage.
When applying a battle dressing, you should make sure that the dressing covers the entire wound.
Shock is a condition where the blood circulation is seriously disturbed.
The symptoms of shock in a person are—
a. Weak and rapid pulse
b. Shallow, rapid, and irregular breathing
c. Lower temperature—the arms, face, and legs feel cold to the touch
d. Sweating
e. Pale skin color; however, in some cases, it may be bluish or reddish
f. Dilated (enlarged) pupils g. Thirst and an feeling of weakness, faintness, or dizziness
True, you should keep an injured person warm enough to be comfortable, but not warm enough to become overheated.
If you suspect that a person is in shock, you should keep the person lying flat on his/her back with the feet slightly elevated (raised) so that the position encourages the blood to flow back to the brain.
In the Navy, the most frequent suicide victim is an enlisted male between 17 and 24 years old and in paygrades E-1 through E-6.
The most common causes of suicide are—
a. Breakup of a close relationship
b. Death of a loved one
c. Loss of social or financial status
d. Effects of drugs and/or alcohol
Depression is often associated with suicide.
Some actions you can take if you believe someone is suicidal are—
a. Take all threats seriously
b. Confront the problem
c. Answer cries for help
d. Let the person know you care
e. Listen
f. Get professional help
g. Don’t leave the person alone
Burns are defined as follows:
a. First-degree burn—Mildest burn. Slight redness, tenderness , and in creased temperature of the burned area.
b. Second-degree burn—More serious than first-degree burn. Inner skin may be damaged, blistering, severe pain, some dehydration, and possible shock.
c. Third-degree burn—Most serious burn. Skin is destroyed and possibly tissue and muscle beneath it. Skin may be charred or white and lifeless (from scalds). Some form of shock will result.
By immersing the burned area in cold water or by applying cold compresses, you minimize pain and reduce the burning effect in deeper layers of the skin.
If a burn covers more than 20% of a victim’s body, you should apply sterile, dry bandages.
When treating burns you should NEVER apply petrolatum gauze, break blisters or apply butter, lard, or Vaseline™.
The three most important signs of heatstroke are—
a. Dry, hot skin
b. Constricted pupils
c. Very high body temperature (usually above 105ºF)
The three most important signs of heat exhaustion are—
a. Moist, clammy skin
b. Dilated pupils
c. Normal or subnormal temperature
The aim of first-aid treatment for heatstroke or heat exhaustion is to reduce body temperature.
True, in case of heatstroke/heat exhaustion, you should transport the victim to a medical facility as soon as possible.
Fractures are—
a. Closed fracture
b. Open fracture
The symptoms of a fractured leg or arm include—
a. Pain and tenderness
b. Discoloration of the skin
c. Creaking or cracking
d. Inability to use the part
e. Motion at points other than joints
f. Swelling
g. Deformity
To give first aid to someone with a fractured leg or arm, you should—
a. Get medical aid as soon as possible
b. Don’t move the victim until splints have been applied, unless the victim’s life is in danger
c. Treat for shock
d. Don’t try to find a fracture by grating the ends of the bone together
e. Don’t try to set a broken bone
f. If a long bone in the leg is fractured, carefully straighten the leg so it can be immobilized g. Apply splints
The types of fractures that should be treated by medical personnel are—
a. Jaw
b. Ribs
c. Spine
You should never move a person who might have a fractured spine or neck because moving that person might cause permanent paralysis.
The symptoms a victim might have with a sprained or strained leg include—
a. Pain, lameness, stiffness, or pressure
b. Pain on movement
c. Swelling and tenderness
d. discoloration
e. With a strain, a distinct gap at the site of the injury
The first aid that should be given to a victim suspected of having a sprained or strained leg includes treating all sprains as fractures until ruled out by X-rays.
One of the easiest ways to carry an unconscious person is to use the fireman’s lift/carry.
When rescuing a person who has received an electric shock, you should not touch the victim’s body, wire, or any other object that may conduct electricity.
You should carry a stretcher with the victim’s feet first so the rear stretcher bearer can see the victim for signs of breathing difficulty.
To transport an injured person from engine-room spaces, a Neil Robertson stretcher is usually used.
Emergency rescue lines are used when an injured person must be transported and no other means is available.
Personal hygiene is important for the following reasons:
a. Close living quarters
b. Well-being of the crew
c. Reduced chance of illness
d. Morale increase
The three most common dental conditions caused by poor dental hygiene are—
a. Tooth decay
b. Reddening of the gums
c. Gum and bone disease
To avoid dental problems, you should—
a. Brush your teeth
b. Floss your teeth
c. Have dental checkups every 6 months
The two most common sexually transmitted diseases are—
a. Syphilis
b. Gonorrhea
AIDS is spread through—
a. Sexual contact
b. Needle sharing by drug users
c. Transfusions
Study Guide - Basic Military Requirements (BMR CH 15)
The Navy uses the Goal Card Program to help new Sailors set and achieve goals while in the service.
Some areas covered by the Pocket Goal Card include—
a. DEP goals
b. Navy core values
c. Recruit training goals
d. The Sailor’s Creed
e. Fleet goals
f. Personal priorities (including education)
g. There is also space for Sailors to write their own goals
The permanent boardmembers of the Professional Development Board include the—
a. Command Master Chief
b. Command Career Counselor
c. Personnel Officer
d. Educational Service Officer
The Professional Development Board interviews Sailors who want advancement training or who want to attend special programs.
The three lowest grades are known as apprenticeships.
Ratings are divided into—
a. General
b. Service
A designated striker is a person in paygrades E-1, E-2, or E-3 who has been designated as technically qualified for a particular rating.
The Manpower and Personnel Classifications and Occupational Standard, NAVPERS 18068, contains a list of NAVSTDs and OCCSTDs.
The three types of duty are—
a. Sea
b. Shore
c. Neutral
Overseas shore duty Code 3 is classified as sea duty for rotational purposes.
To let your detailer know what duty station you want, you should submit Enlisted Duty Preference Form, NAVPERS 1306/63.
The kind of information found on the Enlisted Duty Preference Form includes—
a. Where you want to go
b. What type of duty you prefer
c. Career intentions
d. Family status
The Evaluation Report and Counseling Record is used to record your qualifications, conduct, performance, and eligibility for advancement.
The numerical grading scale used on the Evaluation Report and Counseling Record is similar to the A, B, C, D, F scale used in most high schools. The following scale shows the grading scale used on the Evaluation Report and Counseling Record:
a. 5.0—greatly exceeds standards
b. 4.0—above standards
c. 3.0—meets standards
d. 2.0—progressing
e. 1.0—below standards
The evaluation traits that are found on the Evaluation Report and Counseling Record include—
a. Professional knowledge
b. Quality of work
c. Equal opportunity
d. Military bearing and character
e. Personal job accomplishment and initiative
f. Teamwork g. Leadership
After you sign your Evaluation Report, it is sent to BUPERS and copies go to the field service record, reporting activity, and to you, the service member.
Page 1 of your service record contains your enlisted contract.
Your evaluations are kept in the left-hand side of your service record , underneath the separator.
Record of Emergency Data form is Page 2 of your service record.
You should update Page 2 anytime you or your family member has a change of address or change in status.
Your basic test battery scores are on Page 4 of your service record.
Page 4 contains the following information:
a. NECs; designators, assigned, changed, or revoked
b. Navy schools attended
c. Navy training courses completed
d. Personal qualifications; technical qualifications
e. GED and off-duty courses completed
f. Decoration and awards
Documents that require the CO’s personal signature include documents dealing with law or aspects of military justice and documents that by law are required to have the CO’s signature, such as ships’ deck log.
You can find a list of command personnel that has signature authority to sign command correspondence in your unit’s organizational manual or instruction.
3-M stands for the Maintenance and Material Management Systems.
The objectives of the 3-M system include—
a. Maintain equipment at maximum operating efficiency
b. Reduce equipment downtime
c. Reduce cost of maintenance in both money and man-hours
d. Providedata directly related to maintenance
PQS is divided into three sections that include—
a. Fundamentals
b. Systems
When you’re learning a skill while working, you are receiving on-the-job (OJT) training.
Recruit training is General Military Training (GMT) and a class “R” school.
Different Navy schools include—
a. Class “R”
b. Class “A”
c. Class “C”
d. Class “F”
e. Class “P”
f. Class “V”
The Basic Skills Program offers Sailors a chance to earn a high school diploma or improve their skills and military performance.
The Tuition Assistance Program is the Navy’s financial program that helps Sailors with their off-duty education.
DANTES offers examinations and certification programs, operates an independent study support system, and provides other support and development activities.
The Secretary of the Navy can appoint the following enlisted personnel to the Naval Academy:
a. 85 Regular Navy or Regular Marine Corps
b. 85 Naval or Marine Corps Reserve (active or inactive)
The maximum time allowed to attend college on the NROTC program is 40 months.
The BOOST program was intended for Sailors who meet all the requirements for the Naval Academy or NROTC program except for academics and people who have been educationally deprived.
The major requirement to be eligible for the Enlisted Commissioning Program is the candidate must be able to complete a baccalaureate degree within 2 years.
The two programs that can lead to an enlisted member being commissioned are—
a. Chief Warrant Officer
b. Limited Duty Officer
The five types of discharge are—
a. Honorable
b. General
c. Other than Honorable
d. Bad Conduct
e. Dishonorable
When getting out of the Navy with less than 8 years of service, you are separated from naval service instead of discharged.
Some advantages of having an honorable discharge from the Navy include—
a. Entitlements to various veterans’ benefits and rights
b. Job preferences
c. Entry into a school or college
The Good Conduct Medal can be awarded every 3 years for good conduct.
Some areas covered by the Pocket Goal Card include—
a. DEP goals
b. Navy core values
c. Recruit training goals
d. The Sailor’s Creed
e. Fleet goals
f. Personal priorities (including education)
g. There is also space for Sailors to write their own goals
The permanent boardmembers of the Professional Development Board include the—
a. Command Master Chief
b. Command Career Counselor
c. Personnel Officer
d. Educational Service Officer
The Professional Development Board interviews Sailors who want advancement training or who want to attend special programs.
The three lowest grades are known as apprenticeships.
Ratings are divided into—
a. General
b. Service
A designated striker is a person in paygrades E-1, E-2, or E-3 who has been designated as technically qualified for a particular rating.
The Manpower and Personnel Classifications and Occupational Standard, NAVPERS 18068, contains a list of NAVSTDs and OCCSTDs.
The three types of duty are—
a. Sea
b. Shore
c. Neutral
Overseas shore duty Code 3 is classified as sea duty for rotational purposes.
To let your detailer know what duty station you want, you should submit Enlisted Duty Preference Form, NAVPERS 1306/63.
The kind of information found on the Enlisted Duty Preference Form includes—
a. Where you want to go
b. What type of duty you prefer
c. Career intentions
d. Family status
The Evaluation Report and Counseling Record is used to record your qualifications, conduct, performance, and eligibility for advancement.
The numerical grading scale used on the Evaluation Report and Counseling Record is similar to the A, B, C, D, F scale used in most high schools. The following scale shows the grading scale used on the Evaluation Report and Counseling Record:
a. 5.0—greatly exceeds standards
b. 4.0—above standards
c. 3.0—meets standards
d. 2.0—progressing
e. 1.0—below standards
The evaluation traits that are found on the Evaluation Report and Counseling Record include—
a. Professional knowledge
b. Quality of work
c. Equal opportunity
d. Military bearing and character
e. Personal job accomplishment and initiative
f. Teamwork g. Leadership
After you sign your Evaluation Report, it is sent to BUPERS and copies go to the field service record, reporting activity, and to you, the service member.
Page 1 of your service record contains your enlisted contract.
Your evaluations are kept in the left-hand side of your service record , underneath the separator.
Record of Emergency Data form is Page 2 of your service record.
You should update Page 2 anytime you or your family member has a change of address or change in status.
Your basic test battery scores are on Page 4 of your service record.
Page 4 contains the following information:
a. NECs; designators, assigned, changed, or revoked
b. Navy schools attended
c. Navy training courses completed
d. Personal qualifications; technical qualifications
e. GED and off-duty courses completed
f. Decoration and awards
Documents that require the CO’s personal signature include documents dealing with law or aspects of military justice and documents that by law are required to have the CO’s signature, such as ships’ deck log.
You can find a list of command personnel that has signature authority to sign command correspondence in your unit’s organizational manual or instruction.
3-M stands for the Maintenance and Material Management Systems.
The objectives of the 3-M system include—
a. Maintain equipment at maximum operating efficiency
b. Reduce equipment downtime
c. Reduce cost of maintenance in both money and man-hours
d. Providedata directly related to maintenance
PQS is divided into three sections that include—
a. Fundamentals
b. Systems
When you’re learning a skill while working, you are receiving on-the-job (OJT) training.
Recruit training is General Military Training (GMT) and a class “R” school.
Different Navy schools include—
a. Class “R”
b. Class “A”
c. Class “C”
d. Class “F”
e. Class “P”
f. Class “V”
The Basic Skills Program offers Sailors a chance to earn a high school diploma or improve their skills and military performance.
The Tuition Assistance Program is the Navy’s financial program that helps Sailors with their off-duty education.
DANTES offers examinations and certification programs, operates an independent study support system, and provides other support and development activities.
The Secretary of the Navy can appoint the following enlisted personnel to the Naval Academy:
a. 85 Regular Navy or Regular Marine Corps
b. 85 Naval or Marine Corps Reserve (active or inactive)
The maximum time allowed to attend college on the NROTC program is 40 months.
The BOOST program was intended for Sailors who meet all the requirements for the Naval Academy or NROTC program except for academics and people who have been educationally deprived.
The major requirement to be eligible for the Enlisted Commissioning Program is the candidate must be able to complete a baccalaureate degree within 2 years.
The two programs that can lead to an enlisted member being commissioned are—
a. Chief Warrant Officer
b. Limited Duty Officer
The five types of discharge are—
a. Honorable
b. General
c. Other than Honorable
d. Bad Conduct
e. Dishonorable
When getting out of the Navy with less than 8 years of service, you are separated from naval service instead of discharged.
Some advantages of having an honorable discharge from the Navy include—
a. Entitlements to various veterans’ benefits and rights
b. Job preferences
c. Entry into a school or college
The Good Conduct Medal can be awarded every 3 years for good conduct.
Study Guide - Basic Military Requirements (BMR CH 16)
Chapter 16
Study Guide - Basic Military Requirements (BMR CH 17)
The main difference between pay and allowance is that pay is taxable income and allowance is nontaxable income.
The three types of pay are—
a. Basic
b. Incentive
c. Special
The Navy uses the Direct Deposit System (DDS) to deposit personnel paychecks.
When you have served more than 4 years of active-duty service, you will receive a longevity raise every 2 years.
You receive your clothing maintenance allowance once a year.
The allowances that were combined to form the basic allowance for housing are—
a. BAQ
b. BHA
You are responsible for making sure your paycheck and LES are correct.
You earn 30 days a year or 2.5 days of leave per month.
The CO may grant 3- or 4-day special liberty periods.
A checking account is the safest and most convenient way to keep track of the money you spend.
If you don’t have enough money in your checking account to cover a check, you have bounced a check. You are usually charged a fee by the bank to process this check and charged a fee by the company you wrote the check to.
When you have money taken out to make loan payments, you have a voluntary allotment.
The first thing to do when making out a budget is to start a savings plan—pay yourself first!
The money you’re charged to use borrowed money is known as interest.
The simplest way to find the total cost of credit is to subtract the actual price of goods from the total amount of the loan.
You establish good credit by paying loans or purchase agreements according to your contract and on time.
SGLI is available in increments of $10,000 only.
The maximum amount of coverage under SGLI is $200,000.
Normally, you are covered for a maximum of 120 days after separation from the service.
The Family Advocacy Program was established to help service members or their families when they are a victim of spousal or child abuse.
The FAO can help a family through—
a. Education programs
b. Counseling
c. Intervention in cases of abuse
Stress occurs when there’s an imbalance between the demands of our lives and resources we have to deal with those demands.
The first step to take when dealing with stress is to identify your stressors; that is, find out what causes the stress.
Some of the ways you can combat stress are—
a. Exercise
b. Diet
c. Meditation
d. Laughter
e. Relaxation techniques
f. Involvement with outside activities
The three types of pay are—
a. Basic
b. Incentive
c. Special
The Navy uses the Direct Deposit System (DDS) to deposit personnel paychecks.
When you have served more than 4 years of active-duty service, you will receive a longevity raise every 2 years.
You receive your clothing maintenance allowance once a year.
The allowances that were combined to form the basic allowance for housing are—
a. BAQ
b. BHA
You are responsible for making sure your paycheck and LES are correct.
You earn 30 days a year or 2.5 days of leave per month.
The CO may grant 3- or 4-day special liberty periods.
A checking account is the safest and most convenient way to keep track of the money you spend.
If you don’t have enough money in your checking account to cover a check, you have bounced a check. You are usually charged a fee by the bank to process this check and charged a fee by the company you wrote the check to.
When you have money taken out to make loan payments, you have a voluntary allotment.
The first thing to do when making out a budget is to start a savings plan—pay yourself first!
The money you’re charged to use borrowed money is known as interest.
The simplest way to find the total cost of credit is to subtract the actual price of goods from the total amount of the loan.
You establish good credit by paying loans or purchase agreements according to your contract and on time.
SGLI is available in increments of $10,000 only.
The maximum amount of coverage under SGLI is $200,000.
Normally, you are covered for a maximum of 120 days after separation from the service.
The Family Advocacy Program was established to help service members or their families when they are a victim of spousal or child abuse.
The FAO can help a family through—
a. Education programs
b. Counseling
c. Intervention in cases of abuse
Stress occurs when there’s an imbalance between the demands of our lives and resources we have to deal with those demands.
The first step to take when dealing with stress is to identify your stressors; that is, find out what causes the stress.
Some of the ways you can combat stress are—
a. Exercise
b. Diet
c. Meditation
d. Laughter
e. Relaxation techniques
f. Involvement with outside activities
Study Guide - Basic Military Requirements (BMR CH 18)
To find the responsibilities for cleaning and maintaining spaces, you should refer to the Cleaning, Preservation, and Maintenance Bill.
The compartment cleaner is responsible for cleaning living and berthing spaces
You should pick up and stow gear that has been left adrift. This reduces tripping and fire hazards and keeps dewatering equipment from clogging.
False. You should not sweep dirt and debris over the side.
The three steps used in most detergent cleaning are
a. Wetting
b. Scrubbing
c. Rinsing
The two types of deck covers are—
a. Resilient
b. Nonslip
When working with solvents, the term ventilation means fresh air moving in and through the space with proper exhaust.
When handling acid or caustic cleaners, you should wear the following protective equipment:
a. Acid-resistant apron
b. Face shield with goggles
c. Gloves
d. Boots
Treat material and rags used to clean up a solvent spill as HAZMAT material.
The two types of respirators used by Sailors when handling solvents—
a. Air-purifying
b. Air-supplied
Most fires in paint and solvent storage areas are caused by vapor buildup.
Personnel who work in a compartment having bad air might have one or all of the following symptoms.
a. Dizziness
b. Headache
c. Labored breathing
d. Excessive fatigue
The most common hand tools used to remove paint and rust from small areas are—
a. Sandpaper
b. Wire brush
c. Hand scraper
To prepare chipped edges of paint for painting, you should feather the edge of chipped paint with sandpaper.
The two main reasons for a bad paint job are—
a. Improper surface preparation
b. Improper paint application
The four main essential ingredients in paint are—
a. Pigment
b. Vehicle
c. Drier
d. Thinner
At a minimum, two coats of primer should be applied to bare metal.
The first sign of aluminum corrosion is a white, powdery residue.
True, old paint in good condition makes an excellent base for repainting.
When painting small areas and cutting into corners, you should use the sash tool brush.
To completely and evenly cover an area, you should use the Navy laying on and the laying off method.
The compartment cleaner is responsible for cleaning living and berthing spaces
You should pick up and stow gear that has been left adrift. This reduces tripping and fire hazards and keeps dewatering equipment from clogging.
False. You should not sweep dirt and debris over the side.
The three steps used in most detergent cleaning are
a. Wetting
b. Scrubbing
c. Rinsing
The two types of deck covers are—
a. Resilient
b. Nonslip
When working with solvents, the term ventilation means fresh air moving in and through the space with proper exhaust.
When handling acid or caustic cleaners, you should wear the following protective equipment:
a. Acid-resistant apron
b. Face shield with goggles
c. Gloves
d. Boots
Treat material and rags used to clean up a solvent spill as HAZMAT material.
The two types of respirators used by Sailors when handling solvents—
a. Air-purifying
b. Air-supplied
Most fires in paint and solvent storage areas are caused by vapor buildup.
Personnel who work in a compartment having bad air might have one or all of the following symptoms.
a. Dizziness
b. Headache
c. Labored breathing
d. Excessive fatigue
The most common hand tools used to remove paint and rust from small areas are—
a. Sandpaper
b. Wire brush
c. Hand scraper
To prepare chipped edges of paint for painting, you should feather the edge of chipped paint with sandpaper.
The two main reasons for a bad paint job are—
a. Improper surface preparation
b. Improper paint application
The four main essential ingredients in paint are—
a. Pigment
b. Vehicle
c. Drier
d. Thinner
At a minimum, two coats of primer should be applied to bare metal.
The first sign of aluminum corrosion is a white, powdery residue.
True, old paint in good condition makes an excellent base for repainting.
When painting small areas and cutting into corners, you should use the sash tool brush.
To completely and evenly cover an area, you should use the Navy laying on and the laying off method.
Study Guide - Basic Military Requirements (BMR CH 19)
Some safety precautions that could save lives include—
a. Observe all safety precautions
b. Report unsafe conditions
c. Warn your shipmates of hazards
d. Wear protective clothing and equipment
e. Stay alert
Being aboard ship is dangerous. Some dangerous shipboard environments you may work in or work around involve—
a. Powerful machinery
b. High-speed equipment
c. High-temperature, high-pressure steam
d. Volatile fuels and propellants
e. Heavy lifts
f. High explosives
g. Electrical voltages
h. Wind and waves
The publication that contains information on using, storing, and disposing of hazardous materials is the Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS).
According to OPNAVINST 5100.19, you should follow MSDS guidelines when handling hazardous materials.
The boat safety precautions that every Sailor should know include—
a. Obey all orders from the coxswain.
b. Embark in a quiet, orderly manner and move as far forward as possible. Once embarked, stay in place.
c. Keep all parts of your body in the boat; do not sit on gunwales.
d. Don’t engage in horseplay.
e. Never distract the attention of crew members from their duties.
f. Don’t sit on life jackets; this will mat the filler and reduce buoyancy.
g. When told to do so, don your life jacket immediately.
h. Don’t smoke in a boat.
i. If told to embark or disembark, do so without argument. During heavy weather, boat loads will be reduced.
If a boat swamps, don’t panic! Panic is easily spread from person to person causing people to lose their lives.
You should learn the location of cleats, bitts, and pad eyes on a ship’s deck because they’re tripping hazards; if you know where hazards are located, you stand a better chance of avoiding the hazard.
Two hazards found on flight decks of aircraft carriers are—
a. Propellers
b. Jet engines
Handling cargo improperly can result in injury and death. In the following cases you should take the indicated precautions.
a. When working with line, never stand in the bight of a line. Keep clear of lines under strain because a line under strain can break with a whiplike snap that can cause severe bruising, broken bones, amputations, or death.
b. When lifting heavy objects, crouch close to the load with feet spread. Grip the object and lift with your arm and leg muscles (not your back). If the load is too heavy for one person to lift, ask for help.
c. When steadying a load, use the nonworking side of a ship for fore-and-aft travel. Don’t stand between the load and a fixed object; don’t stand under a suspended load; and never ride loads.
The OOD grants permission for any work done aloft.
Before permission is given for personnel to work aloft, the following precautions are taken:
a. Power is secured on radio and radar antennas and controls associated with antennas are tagged.
b. The engineer officer is notified to prevent operations such as lifting boiler safety valves or blowing tubes.
Lifelines are safety barriers to prevent personnel from falling or being washed over the side.
When working over the side, you should wear the following equipment:
a. Standard Navy safety harness with safety line attached and tended by someone on deck
b. An inherently buoyant life jacket with a hole in the back, allowing you to wear a safety harness
Most accidents involving steam happen in engine rooms and firerooms.
You should never enter a closed space until it’s certified by the gas free engineer because closed compartments contain unexpected dangers, including pressures, toxic gases, carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide, and possibly no oxygen.
The symptoms caused by bad air include—
a. Labored breathing
b. Excessive fatigue
c. Headache d. Dizziness
Open flame and naked lights are defined as follows:
a. The term open flame includes all forms of fuel or gas lanterns, lighted candles, matches, cigarette lighters, and so on.
b. The term naked lights includes any unprotected electrical lighting device.
You should take the following actions when storing solvents:
a. Label all containers used to store solvents
b. Store solvents in appropriate lockers
When handling a weapon, you need to think about what you’re doing because accidents don’t “just happen;” they’re caused. In fact, they’re often caused by personnel who don’t follow safety precautions or who are careless.
Projectiles that have a 3-inch or greater diameter are color-coded to show the projectile type and the kind of bursting charge that they contain.
Treating common 115-volt equipment lightly is the cause of many fatal shocks received from drills and fans.
Three types of hazards associated with compressed gases are—
a. Cylinders not secured
b. Cylinders under high pressure
c. Cylinders containing poisonous, flam- mable, or explosive material
True, oxygen and chlorine are stowed in compartments separate from flammable gases.
You should use a filter mask respirator when working with fiberglass because fiberglass dust is abrasive and an irritant to skin and eyes.
Before beginning work to repair a piece of equipment, you should make sure that the equipment is de-energized and / or depressurized and tagged out of service.
Only properly trained personnel should operate gas welding or cutting equipment.
When working around rotating machinery, you should remove jewelry and watches and you shouldn’t wear loose fitting clothing; wear protecting clothing and equipment, such as hearing protection, eye, hand, and foot protection, dust and paint respirators, and so on.
The safety precautions to follow when working with systems having pressurized liquids include—
a. Never connect or disconnect a hose from the system until the pressure has been removed.
b. Never point a charged (pressurized) fire hose at anyone.
c. Never use ruptured or worn hoses.
d. Don’t use spray paints, butane fluids, lacquers, and other aerosol products near a flame; don’t throw them into a fire; and don’t puncture the container.
If you’ve been exposed to acids or alkalis, you should immediately seek medical attention.
You shouldn’t smoke near sewage-handling equipment for the following reasons:
a. Fuel leaks or spills can occur in the incinerator area where temperatures may exceed the flash point of the fuels used.
b. Methane and hydrogen sulfide may be emitted by any tank or tank leaks. These gases are also flammable and under some conditions are explosive.
The three types of hearing protection are the
a. Headband
b. Earplugs,
c. Circumaural muff.
List the three major precautions you should follow when lifting heavy loads.
a. Don’t lift an object if it is too heavy or too clumsy for good balance.
b. Keep the load close to the center of your body.
c. Pull the load toward you; then lift it gradually.
Before entering a shipyard for dry dock work, every ship has a shipyard safety doctrine and conducts safety training before entering a shipyard.
LOX is dangerous to handle because—
a. It freezes immediately on contact.
b. As a gas, it exerts extremely high pressure.
The symptoms of heat exhaustion and heat stroke include—
a. Increased body temperature
b. Severe headache
c. Nausea
d. Reduced mental and physical performance
The major health threat of cold weather is hypothermia.
Purposes of the tag-out bill include—
a. To provide personnel a way to prevent the improper operation of a component, piece of equipment, system, or a part of a system that’s isolated or in an abnormal condition.
b. To give personnel a way to operate an instrument that’s unreliable or not in a normal operating condition.
c. To give personal a way to accomplish certain planned maintenance system (PMS) procedures.
The tag-out system is made or broken by the person attaching the tag.
A DANGER tag identifies equipment whose operation is prohibited because its use could jeopardize the safety of personnel or endanger equipment.
Tag-out logs contain—
a. A copy of the main instruction and any other amplifying directives for administering the system.
b. A DANGER/CAUTION tag-out index and record of audits (index/audit record).
c. Cleared DANGER/CAUTION tag-out record sheets that have been cleared and completed.
a. Observe all safety precautions
b. Report unsafe conditions
c. Warn your shipmates of hazards
d. Wear protective clothing and equipment
e. Stay alert
Being aboard ship is dangerous. Some dangerous shipboard environments you may work in or work around involve—
a. Powerful machinery
b. High-speed equipment
c. High-temperature, high-pressure steam
d. Volatile fuels and propellants
e. Heavy lifts
f. High explosives
g. Electrical voltages
h. Wind and waves
The publication that contains information on using, storing, and disposing of hazardous materials is the Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS).
According to OPNAVINST 5100.19, you should follow MSDS guidelines when handling hazardous materials.
The boat safety precautions that every Sailor should know include—
a. Obey all orders from the coxswain.
b. Embark in a quiet, orderly manner and move as far forward as possible. Once embarked, stay in place.
c. Keep all parts of your body in the boat; do not sit on gunwales.
d. Don’t engage in horseplay.
e. Never distract the attention of crew members from their duties.
f. Don’t sit on life jackets; this will mat the filler and reduce buoyancy.
g. When told to do so, don your life jacket immediately.
h. Don’t smoke in a boat.
i. If told to embark or disembark, do so without argument. During heavy weather, boat loads will be reduced.
If a boat swamps, don’t panic! Panic is easily spread from person to person causing people to lose their lives.
You should learn the location of cleats, bitts, and pad eyes on a ship’s deck because they’re tripping hazards; if you know where hazards are located, you stand a better chance of avoiding the hazard.
Two hazards found on flight decks of aircraft carriers are—
a. Propellers
b. Jet engines
Handling cargo improperly can result in injury and death. In the following cases you should take the indicated precautions.
a. When working with line, never stand in the bight of a line. Keep clear of lines under strain because a line under strain can break with a whiplike snap that can cause severe bruising, broken bones, amputations, or death.
b. When lifting heavy objects, crouch close to the load with feet spread. Grip the object and lift with your arm and leg muscles (not your back). If the load is too heavy for one person to lift, ask for help.
c. When steadying a load, use the nonworking side of a ship for fore-and-aft travel. Don’t stand between the load and a fixed object; don’t stand under a suspended load; and never ride loads.
The OOD grants permission for any work done aloft.
Before permission is given for personnel to work aloft, the following precautions are taken:
a. Power is secured on radio and radar antennas and controls associated with antennas are tagged.
b. The engineer officer is notified to prevent operations such as lifting boiler safety valves or blowing tubes.
Lifelines are safety barriers to prevent personnel from falling or being washed over the side.
When working over the side, you should wear the following equipment:
a. Standard Navy safety harness with safety line attached and tended by someone on deck
b. An inherently buoyant life jacket with a hole in the back, allowing you to wear a safety harness
Most accidents involving steam happen in engine rooms and firerooms.
You should never enter a closed space until it’s certified by the gas free engineer because closed compartments contain unexpected dangers, including pressures, toxic gases, carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide, and possibly no oxygen.
The symptoms caused by bad air include—
a. Labored breathing
b. Excessive fatigue
c. Headache d. Dizziness
Open flame and naked lights are defined as follows:
a. The term open flame includes all forms of fuel or gas lanterns, lighted candles, matches, cigarette lighters, and so on.
b. The term naked lights includes any unprotected electrical lighting device.
You should take the following actions when storing solvents:
a. Label all containers used to store solvents
b. Store solvents in appropriate lockers
When handling a weapon, you need to think about what you’re doing because accidents don’t “just happen;” they’re caused. In fact, they’re often caused by personnel who don’t follow safety precautions or who are careless.
Projectiles that have a 3-inch or greater diameter are color-coded to show the projectile type and the kind of bursting charge that they contain.
Treating common 115-volt equipment lightly is the cause of many fatal shocks received from drills and fans.
Three types of hazards associated with compressed gases are—
a. Cylinders not secured
b. Cylinders under high pressure
c. Cylinders containing poisonous, flam- mable, or explosive material
True, oxygen and chlorine are stowed in compartments separate from flammable gases.
You should use a filter mask respirator when working with fiberglass because fiberglass dust is abrasive and an irritant to skin and eyes.
Before beginning work to repair a piece of equipment, you should make sure that the equipment is de-energized and / or depressurized and tagged out of service.
Only properly trained personnel should operate gas welding or cutting equipment.
When working around rotating machinery, you should remove jewelry and watches and you shouldn’t wear loose fitting clothing; wear protecting clothing and equipment, such as hearing protection, eye, hand, and foot protection, dust and paint respirators, and so on.
The safety precautions to follow when working with systems having pressurized liquids include—
a. Never connect or disconnect a hose from the system until the pressure has been removed.
b. Never point a charged (pressurized) fire hose at anyone.
c. Never use ruptured or worn hoses.
d. Don’t use spray paints, butane fluids, lacquers, and other aerosol products near a flame; don’t throw them into a fire; and don’t puncture the container.
If you’ve been exposed to acids or alkalis, you should immediately seek medical attention.
You shouldn’t smoke near sewage-handling equipment for the following reasons:
a. Fuel leaks or spills can occur in the incinerator area where temperatures may exceed the flash point of the fuels used.
b. Methane and hydrogen sulfide may be emitted by any tank or tank leaks. These gases are also flammable and under some conditions are explosive.
The three types of hearing protection are the
a. Headband
b. Earplugs,
c. Circumaural muff.
List the three major precautions you should follow when lifting heavy loads.
a. Don’t lift an object if it is too heavy or too clumsy for good balance.
b. Keep the load close to the center of your body.
c. Pull the load toward you; then lift it gradually.
Before entering a shipyard for dry dock work, every ship has a shipyard safety doctrine and conducts safety training before entering a shipyard.
LOX is dangerous to handle because—
a. It freezes immediately on contact.
b. As a gas, it exerts extremely high pressure.
The symptoms of heat exhaustion and heat stroke include—
a. Increased body temperature
b. Severe headache
c. Nausea
d. Reduced mental and physical performance
The major health threat of cold weather is hypothermia.
Purposes of the tag-out bill include—
a. To provide personnel a way to prevent the improper operation of a component, piece of equipment, system, or a part of a system that’s isolated or in an abnormal condition.
b. To give personnel a way to operate an instrument that’s unreliable or not in a normal operating condition.
c. To give personal a way to accomplish certain planned maintenance system (PMS) procedures.
The tag-out system is made or broken by the person attaching the tag.
A DANGER tag identifies equipment whose operation is prohibited because its use could jeopardize the safety of personnel or endanger equipment.
Tag-out logs contain—
a. A copy of the main instruction and any other amplifying directives for administering the system.
b. A DANGER/CAUTION tag-out index and record of audits (index/audit record).
c. Cleared DANGER/CAUTION tag-out record sheets that have been cleared and completed.
Basic Military Requirements (BMR CH 1) - Study Guide
If Navy service members don’t meet the fitness or body fat standards and need help to change health habits, they take part in the Health and Physical Readiness Program.
The Navy responsibility for pregnant servicewomen is providing obstetrical care at a medical facility if it has obstetrical/gynecological facilities and if the servicewoman lives in the treatment facility area.
List the responsibilities of pregnant servicewomen.
a. Plan pregnancy to meet family and military obligation
b. Confirm pregnancy with military medical facility
c. Notify CO or OIC of pregnancy
d. Perform military duties while pregnant
e. Comply with work- and task-related safety and health recommendations
Service members must complete what forms for family care?
a. Family Care Plan Certificate, NAVPERS 1740/6
b. Family Care Plan Arrangements, NAVPERS 1740/7
The Department of the Navy public affairs informs the public and service members about the following subjects: a. The Navy as an instrument of national policy and security
b. Navy operations and programs
c. The responsibilities and activities of naval personnel as U.S. Citizens
The Navy’s policy on drug abuse is zero tolerance.
The purpose of the Integrity and Efficiency Program is to detect, deter, and eliminate fraud, waste, and abuse.
You can report fraud, waste, and abuse situations by the following means:
a. Chain of command
b. Navy hotline
c. Naval Criminal Investigative Service (NCIS)
d. Congressional communication
For the public to feel confident about the Navy’s integrity, naval personnel should comply with the Standards of Conduct and Professional Ethics.
The Navy uses the Command Managed Equal Opportunity (CMEO) Program to ensure that all naval personnel are treated equally and are given equal opportunities.
Guidance and policy for the CMEO Program is provided by the Chief of Naval Operations.
Telling an sexist or racial joke is an insensitive practice.
Command facilities provide a variety of products and services in command facilities to avoid discrimination in the operation of exchanges, commissaries, service clubs, and recreational facilities.
The best place for you or your family to start to resolve an off-base discrimination complaint is your chain of command.
Navy personnel can’t take part in civil rights demonstrations in the following situations:
a. While wearing their uniform or during duty hours.
b. When held on a military reservation or in a foreign country.
c. When law and order are violated or when they could reasonably be expected to result in violence.
You have submitted a special request chit and feel that the chain of command hasn’t resolved your discrimination complaint. Your next course of action is to request captain’s mast.
Hazing is any conduct whereby a military member or members, regardless of service or rank, without proper authority causes another military member or members, regardless of service or rank, to suffer or be exposed to any activity which is cruel, abusive, humiliating, oppressive, demeaning, or harmful.
According to Navy policy, hazing is prohibited.
Improper conduct is considered sexual harassment when—
a. Submission to or rejection of such conduct is made either explicitly or implicitly a term or condition of a person’s job.
b. Pay, or career; submission to or rejection of such conduct by a person is used as a basis for career or employment decisions affecting that person.
c. Such conduct interferes with an individual’s performance or creates an intimidating , hostile , or offensive environment.
A person’s behavior to be termed sexual harassment if is—
a. Unwelcome
b. Sexual in nature
c. Occurs in or impacts on the work environment
The recipient’s perceptions count when there is unwelcome behavior.
If your LCPO offers you high marks on your evals in exchange for sexual favors, it is quid pro quo sexual harassment.
Displaying posters or using sexually explicit language creates a hostile environment.
To make the range of good to bad behavior easier to understand, the Navy has compared behavior zones to the traffic light.
a. Red zone—Sexual harassment behavior
b. Yellow zone—Many people find behavior unacceptable
c. Green light—Acceptable behavior, not sexual harassment
The function of the ombudsman is to promote good order and discipline.
The ombudsman—
a. Acts as a liaison between Navy families and the command, and
b. Keeps the families informed about command policies.
The ombudsman communicates with Navy families through command newsletters, command-sponsored telephone “Careline,” or phone trees.
The ombudsman works through the following agencies/organizations:
a. Navy-Marine Corps Relief Society
b. American Red Cross
c. Family Service Centers
d. Chaplain’s office
e. Navy Wifeline Association
f. Medical treatment facilities
g. Legal assistance offices
Before a first-term Sailor can reenlist or extend, he/she must have ENCORE approval.
If you leave the Navy, your reenlistment code tells whether you can reenlist.